AMC MCQ Recalls April 2026: 10 Free Questions, Answers and What the Exam Costs

Want the whole April 2026 set? All 100 questions are free in the quiz, with the explanation and recall tip after every answer. Start the free April 2026 quiz

April was the sitting where candidates said the stems were long: more history, more numbers, more red herrings in the social history. The medicine underneath was standard, but you had to find it. A neonate whose bilirubin needed an exchange transfusion, not phototherapy. Vomiting, a large-for-dates uterus and a beta-hCG that didn't fit. An unstable trauma patient where the answer was the bedside ultrasound, not the CT. Below are ten of our 100 AMC MCQ recall questions for the April 2026 AMC Part 1 CAT MCQ, with answers and recall tips.

April is also when people work out whether they can afford a second attempt, so the AMC exam fees are at the bottom. The short version: the cheapest preparation is the one that gets you through first time.

What the April 2026 AMC MCQ sitting leaned on

Here is how our 100 April questions break down by specialty, which mirrors the topics candidates reported:

• 12 Obstetrics & Gynaecology

• 11 Rheumatology, MSK & Neurology

• 11 Cardiology & Respiratory

• 11 Dermatology, ENT, Haematology & Oncology

• 11 Infectious & Sexual Health, Ethics & Biostatistics

• 10 Paediatrics

• 10 Psychiatry

• 10 Renal, Urology & Endocrine

• 9 Gastroenterology & Surgery

• 5 Emergency & Trauma

The spread was flat: twelve women's health, eleven each for rheumatology and neurology, cardiorespiratory, dermatology and ENT, and the ID and ethics block. Paediatrics and psychiatry had ten each. That flatness is itself the lesson. There was no specialty you could skip and still pass.

Two things stood out. The endocrine questions included GLP-1 therapy for type 2 diabetes with cardiovascular disease, which is current Australian practice and not what older notes say. And the biostatistics block asked about specificity with the SPIN mnemonic, which is the kind of question that is free marks if you've seen it once. The high-yield topics guide covers both.

10 free AMC CAT MCQ recalls from April 2026

Work each recall before you read the answer. The recall tip under each is the exam-day version: the one phrase in the stem that decides the answer.

Question 1 of 10 · Paediatrics · Severe Neonatal Jaundice (Exchange Transfusion)

A four-day-old term baby is deeply jaundiced with a total serum bilirubin of 460 micromol/L and a low conjugated fraction; the baby feeds well and is otherwise stable. His parents noticed the yellow colour spreading from his face down to his trunk and limbs over the past two days. He is breastfeeding well every two to three hours and producing adequate wet nappies, with no fever or lethargy. Most appropriate management?

A. Start phototherapy

B. Exchange transfusion

C. Start antibiotics

D. Reassure, discharge

E. Repeat in two weeks

Answer: B. Exchange transfusion

A bilirubin around 460 micromol/L at 72 hours or more, with a low conjugated fraction, exceeds the exchange transfusion threshold and risks kernicterus. Immediate exchange transfusion is required, with intensive phototherapy alongside. Moderate elevations are treated with phototherapy, and a well baby on day 3 with a normal level needs only reassurance or review. Persistent jaundice beyond two weeks, or a conjugated picture, is pathological and investigated. Serum bilirubin guides all decisions.

Recall tip A bilirubin near the exchange line at day 4 means exchange transfusion, not just phototherapy. A thriving day-3 baby with a normal level just needs reassurance.

Question 2 of 10 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Molar Pregnancy

A 16-year-old with amenorrhoea took misoprostol for a presumed termination and passed some tissue, but bleeding continues; the uterus is cystically enlarged and beta-hCG is 180,000 IU/L. She sourced the medication online without medical supervision and is frightened by the ongoing bleeding, which has been heavier than she expected. On examination the uterus feels larger than her estimated dates would suggest. Most likely diagnosis?

A. Normal pregnancy

B. Ovarian cyst now

C. Molar pregnancy

D. Complete miscarriage

E. Ectopic pregnancy

Answer: C. Molar pregnancy

A beta-hCG far higher than expected (here 180,000) with cystic uterine enlargement and a poor response to misoprostol strongly suggests a hydatidiform mole from abnormal trophoblastic proliferation. Management is suction evacuation with serial hCG monitoring for persistent gestational trophoblastic disease. After a treated mole, an hCG that normalises then rises again is most often a new pregnancy, though recurrent disease is excluded. In contrast, bleeding with an open cervix and passing products and a falling hCG is an inevitable or incomplete miscarriage, and retained products cause secondary postpartum haemorrhage. The hCG level and ultrasound distinguish these.

Recall tip An hCG far above expected with a cystic uterus is a molar pregnancy, so refer for evacuation and hCG follow-up. After a mole, a rising hCG is usually a new pregnancy until proven otherwise.

Question 3 of 10 · Psychiatry · Involuntary Detention

A man is brought to the emergency department after cutting his throat in a suicide attempt; he is now agitated and says he intends to harm his wife and child, and refuses to cooperate. He was found by paramedics and brought in against his wishes, and his wound has been assessed as requiring only basic wound care. He continues to express his intentions clearly when spoken to and becomes more agitated with each attempt to engage him in further discussion. Most appropriate next step?

A. Discharge patient

B. Reassure, observe

C. Simply call police

D. Inform wife now

E. Detain under Act

Answer: E. Detain under Act

A patient who is a danger to himself and to others and will not cooperate meets criteria for involuntary detention under the Mental Health Act, which allows containment, assessment and treatment. When a patient has handed over one weapon but is actively seeking another, the immediate priority is calling hospital security to protect staff and patient. For an agitated but still engageable patient, verbal de-escalation comes first, before security, sedation or restraint. Severe self-neglect in schizophrenia, off medication and unable to self-care, is also grounds for involuntary admission. Safety and legal authority guide these steps.

Recall tip A patient who is a risk to self and others is detained under the Mental Health Act. If an agitated patient is seeking a weapon, call security first; if engageable, de-escalate first.

Three down. Do the other 97 April questions free in the quiz.

Question 4 of 10 · Gastroenterology & Surgery · Perforated Peptic Ulcer

An obese man on regular diclofenac develops sudden, severe, constant epigastric pain and appears distressed. He has been taking the diclofenac regularly for chronic back pain without medical supervision, and the pain came on abruptly about an hour ago while at rest, now radiating slightly to his shoulder. He is reluctant to move because the pain worsens with any motion. Best initial investigation?

A. Serum amylase now

B. Abdominal ultrasound

C. Erect chest X-ray

D. Upper endoscopy now

E. CT of the abdomen

Answer: C. Erect chest X-ray

Sudden, severe, constant epigastric pain in someone taking NSAIDs points to a perforated peptic ulcer, and the first investigation is an erect chest X-ray looking for free air (pneumoperitoneum) under the diaphragm. If seen, urgent surgery follows. A perforated sigmoid diverticulum, presenting with peritonitis and free air on imaging, is a surgical emergency managed by resuscitation then emergency colectomy (often a Hartmann procedure). Free perforation contaminates the peritoneum and carries a high risk of sepsis. Recognising the perforation pattern and confirming free air directs management.

Recall tip Sudden severe epigastric pain on NSAIDs is a perforated ulcer, so get an erect chest X-ray for free air. A perforated diverticulum with peritonitis needs emergency colectomy.

Question 5 of 10 · Emergency & Trauma · Unstable Abdominal Trauma (FAST)

After a motor vehicle accident a man has epigastric pain and visible abdominal bruising with BP 85/60 and tachycardia. He was a rear-seat passenger without a seatbelt during the collision, and paramedics report his blood pressure has remained low despite an initial fluid bolus. He is alert but complains of worsening abdominal pain. Most appropriate next investigation?

A. Abdominal X-ray

B. Bedside FAST scan

C. MRI of abdomen

D. CT of the abdomen

E. Serum amylase now

Answer: B. Bedside FAST scan

Haemodynamic status determines imaging in abdominal trauma. An unstable patient with suspected intra-abdominal bleeding needs an immediate bedside test, so FAST is used to detect free fluid and guide urgent laparotomy, whereas CT is reserved for stable patients because it requires transfer and time. When CT in a stable patient shows a splenic injury with a contrast blush (active bleeding), angioembolisation is preferred, with splenectomy kept for instability or failed embolisation. The key branch point is whether the patient is stable enough to travel to CT. Instability points to FAST and rapid surgical decision-making.

Recall tip Unstable trauma means FAST at the bedside; stable trauma can go to CT. A splenic blush in a stable patient is treated by angioembolisation.

Question 6 of 10 · Renal, Urology & Endocrine · Testicular Torsion

A 16-year-old has sudden severe scrotal swelling and pain with no trauma; the testis is hard to palpate due to oedema. The pain woke him from sleep about two hours ago and has been constant and severe since, accompanied by nausea. He has had no fever and no urinary symptoms, and this is his first time experiencing anything like this. Most important diagnosis to exclude?

A. Epididymo-orchitis

B. Testicular torsion

C. A varicocele now

D. Simple hydrocele now

E. Inguinal hernia now

Answer: B. Testicular torsion

A sudden, severe, painful, swollen scrotum with no trauma must be treated as testicular torsion until proven otherwise, because the blood supply is compromised and irreversible damage occurs after about six hours, so immediate surgical exploration is arranged without delaying for imaging when suspicion is high. This is distinguished from a hydrocele, a painless swelling that transilluminates and is observed, and from acute idiopathic scrotal oedema with a non-tender testis in a well child, which is managed with reassurance. Epididymo-orchitis in a young sexually active man is investigated with STI testing by NAAT. The time-critical diagnosis to exclude is torsion.

Recall tip An acute painful scrotum is torsion until proven otherwise, so explore surgically without delaying for a scan. A transilluminating painless swelling is a hydrocele.

Six down, 94 to go. The rest of the April 2026 set is free in the quiz, one question per screen with the explanation after you answer. Practise all 100 April 2026 questions free

Question 7 of 10 · Rheumatology, MSK & Neurology · Thunderclap Headache (SAH)

A 48-year-old has a sudden severe headache reaching maximum intensity within seconds, described as the worst of his life, with nausea and photophobia; neurological examination is normal. The headache started abruptly while he was lifting weights at the gym, unlike any headache he has experienced before, and he vomited once shortly afterwards. He has no significant past medical history and is otherwise fit and well. Most appropriate next step?

A. Analgesia, watch

B. Non-contrast CT

C. CT angiography

D. Lumbar puncture

E. MRI of the brain

Answer: B. Non-contrast CT

A sudden, worst-ever headache peaking within seconds is a thunderclap headache, and the first investigation is a non-contrast CT head to detect subarachnoid haemorrhage, most sensitive in the first six hours; if negative with ongoing suspicion, a lumbar puncture follows. Headache with papilloedema after tetracycline suggests idiopathic intracranial hypertension, managed by stopping the drug. Acute migraine is treated first with simple analgesia such as paracetamol or an NSAID. A child with a progressive headache worse on bending forward and papilloedema has raised intracranial pressure from a posterior fossa tumour such as medulloblastoma. The headache pattern directs imaging.

Recall tip A thunderclap worst-ever headache means non-contrast CT first, then lumbar puncture if CT is negative. Headache with papilloedema after tetracycline is idiopathic intracranial hypertension.

Question 8 of 10 · Infectious & Sexual Health, Ethics & Biostatistics · Malaria in a Returned Traveller

A 65-year-old has intermittent fever, malaise and fatigue after travelling to Bali a year ago without taking malaria prophylaxis; examination is unremarkable apart from fever. His fevers have come and gone over the past few weeks, and he initially assumed it was a recurring cold until the pattern persisted. He had not thought to mention the trip to Bali until specifically asked about travel history. Most appropriate investigation?

A. Stool microscopy

B. Dengue serology

C. A chest X-ray now

D. Blood film smear

E. Blood cultures now

Answer: D. Blood film smear

Any fever in a returned traveller who did not take prophylaxis must be investigated for malaria, and thick and thin blood films are the gold standard, showing the species and parasitaemia. Plasmodium vivax in particular can present months to years after travel. A single negative film does not exclude malaria, so films are repeated if suspicion persists. Other febrile illnesses in returned travellers, such as dengue, typhoid and hepatitis A, are considered alongside, but malaria must be excluded first because it can be rapidly fatal. Prophylaxis, when used, starts before travel and continues after leaving.

Recall tip Fever in a returned traveller who skipped prophylaxis means thick and thin blood films for malaria. One negative film does not exclude it, so repeat if suspicion persists.

Question 9 of 10 · Infectious & Sexual Health, Ethics & Biostatistics · Surgical Consent by the Operator

A man with an ankle fracture needs operative fixation, and the orthopaedic registrar will take him to theatre. The fracture was confirmed on X-ray in the emergency department, and the patient has been reviewed by the orthopaedic team who have booked him for surgery later today. He has some questions about the risks of the operation. Who is most appropriate to obtain informed consent?

A. The ward nurse now

B. The ED intern now

C. Ortho registrar

D. The ED registrar

E. Ortho consultant

Answer: C. Ortho registrar

Consent should be taken by the person who will perform the procedure or by someone with adequate training and knowledge to explain the risks, benefits and alternatives, so the orthopaedic registrar who is doing the operation is the appropriate person. Capacity principles apply broadly: a competent adult may refuse treatment and that refusal is respected. A calm patient with dementia and an MMSE of 21 who refuses assessment is approached by explaining gently and involving family, because an impaired score does not automatically mean incapacity. An agitated patient who refuses information-sharing should have their agreement sought first if they retain capacity. Consent and capacity centre on understanding and the person best placed to inform.

Recall tip Consent is taken by whoever performs the procedure or is trained to explain it. A competent adult's refusal is respected, and a low MMSE alone is not incapacity.

Question 10 of 10 · Infectious & Sexual Health, Ethics & Biostatistics · Specificity and SPIN

A screening test has a sensitivity of 80%, specificity of 95% and positive predictive value of 70%. A hospital is evaluating whether to adopt this test as part of a diagnostic pathway and wants to understand what these performance figures mean for interpreting individual patient results. Which interpretation is best?

A. High false alarm

B. High specificity

C. Poor at ruling in

D. Highly sensitive

E. It is not useful

Answer: B. High specificity

A specificity of 95% means few false positives, so a positive result is good at ruling in disease, captured by the mnemonic SPIN (a specific test rules in). The sensitivity of 80% is only moderate. The positive predictive value of 70% means that 70% of those who test positive truly have the disease. The positive likelihood ratio is approximately sensitivity divided by one minus specificity; a very high value, for example around 46 for a very specific test, strongly raises the post-test probability. The proportion of diseased patients missed equals the false negatives divided by all diseased, which is one minus sensitivity.

Recall tip High specificity means few false positives, so a positive result rules in disease (SPIN). PPV of 70% means 70% of positives truly have the disease.

That's 10 of 100. The full April 2026 set is free in the quiz, which is a closer rehearsal of the Pearson VUE screen than any page you can read. Start the free April 2026 quiz

How to use these AMC Part 1 recalls

Ten questions on this page, 90 more in the free quiz. The quiz shows one question per screen and explains after you answer, which is a better rehearsal than reading. Start there once you've worked through these.

Recalls tell you what was tested. They don't teach you the medicine. Our rule is simple: use them to direct your attention, then go and learn the topic properly from Therapeutic Guidelines, the RACGP Red Book or the Immunisation Handbook. Candidates who memorise recall answers without the reasoning get caught the moment the AMC changes one detail in the stem, and it always changes one detail.

The combination our team recommends is one paid question bank as your foundation, with the free AMC Recalls monthly sets layered on top as a topic-spotting tool. We compared the main platforms in our AMC Part 1 question bank review; for most candidates on a three to four month timeline that comes out as AMC Academic (20% off any subscription with the code NC94RL at checkout), with the AMC Success Telegram group for discussing each sitting as reports come in. If you have five or six months and a bigger budget, the review explains when alternative platforms such as eMedici and Amedex can help. The full study method, week by week, is in how to pass AMC Part 1 on your first try.

One thing on the timeline that catches people out: passing the AMC CAT MCQ is not the last exam before you can work. AHPRA needs evidence of English before registration, which for most IMGs means IELTS Academic with 7 in every band, or OET with a B in every component. Sit it early, while you're already in exam mode, rather than after your MCQ result. It is also one of the practical reasons AMC Academic comes out ahead in our review: an IELTS Academic preparation course is included in the subscription, so the English test doesn't become a second bill on top of the AMC exam fees.

Other 2026 AMC MCQ recall summaries

Every 2026 sitting has its own summary and its own free 100-question quiz. Topics repeat across months, so the older sets are worth doing too.

• October 2026 recall summary · quiz

• September 2026 recall summary · quiz

• August 2026 recall summary · quiz

• July 2026 recall summary · quiz

• May 2026 recall summary · quiz

• April 2026 (this page) · quiz

• March 2026 recall summary · quiz

• February 2026 recall summary · quiz

June 2026 recall summary · quiz

Ready to practise? Every 2026 sitting is free: 100 questions a month, explanations on every one. Start the April 2026 quiz · Browse all sittings

AMC Recalls is an independent study resource written by doctors who have sat AMC Part 1. We are not affiliated with, endorsed by or connected to the Australian Medical Council, and we have no access to its question bank. The AMC recalls on this page are written from the topics candidates reported after the April 2026 sitting; they are not real exam questions. Our disclaimer explains the process. For eligibility, fees, dates or exam rules, the AMC website is the authority.