AMC MCQ Recalls May 2026: 10 Free Questions, Answers and the Next Exam Dates

Want the whole May 2026 set? All 100 questions are free in the quiz, with the explanation and recall tip after every answer. Start the free May 2026 quiz

May is a popular sitting for candidates from India and Pakistan because it lines up with the end of the academic year, and the reports reflected that: many first-time sitters, and a spread across the blueprint with no single specialty dominating. Several stems turned on recognising a time-critical diagnosis from one or two words: Kawasaki, tamponade, an obstructed infected kidney. Below are ten of our 100 AMC MCQ recall questions for the May 2026 AMC CAT MCQ, with answers and recall tips.

Since many readers of this page are deciding when to sit next, the AMC exam dates and booking deadlines are at the end, with a link to the full 2026–2027 calendar.

What the May 2026 AMC CAT MCQ sitting leaned on

Here is how our 100 May questions break down by specialty, which mirrors the topics candidates reported:

• 14 Paediatrics

• 13 Obstetrics & Gynaecology

• 12 Cardiology & Respiratory

• 10 Psychiatry

• 10 Gastroenterology & Surgery

• 6 Endocrine & Rheumatology

• 6 Neurology

• 5 Renal & Urology

• 5 Ethics & Professionalism

• 4 Infectious Diseases

• 3 Ophthalmology

• 3 Dermatology

• 3 ENT & Head and Neck

• 3 Haematology & Oncology

• 3 Biostatistics

Fourteen paediatrics items, thirteen women's health, twelve cardiology and respiratory. Psychiatry had ten, including postpartum infanticidal ideation, which is a stem candidates find uncomfortable and therefore misread. Neurology had six, more than usual, with the vertigo question being the one people most wanted to argue about afterwards.

Ethics had five, and two were about notifications: fitness to drive and an impaired colleague. Those rules are state-based and finite; learn them once from the high-yield topics guide and they are reliable marks every sitting.

10 free AMC Part 1 recalls from May 2026

Work each recall before you read the answer. The recall tip under each is the exam-day version: the one phrase in the stem that decides the answer.

Question 1 of 10 · Paediatrics · Kawasaki Disease

A 3-year-old has five days of high fever with bilateral non-purulent conjunctivitis, cracked red lips, a rash, cervical lymphadenopathy and swollen hands. The fever has been persistently high despite regular paracetamol, and her parents describe her as unusually irritable and difficult to console. She has no cough or coryza, and her throat does not look exudative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Scarlet fever now

B. Toxic shock state

C. Measles infection

D. Adenoviral illness

E. Kawasaki disease

Answer: E. Kawasaki disease

Kawasaki disease is a medium-vessel vasculitis of young children. Diagnosis requires fever for five or more days plus features such as bilateral conjunctivitis, mucosal changes, a polymorphous rash, extremity changes and cervical lymphadenopathy. The key complication is coronary artery aneurysm. Treatment is IVIG and aspirin, with echocardiography to assess the coronaries. Prompt treatment reduces aneurysm risk.

Recall tip Fever for five or more days plus conjunctivitis, mucositis, rash, hand/foot changes and a node is Kawasaki — treat with IVIG and aspirin. Echo the coronary arteries.

Question 2 of 10 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Postpartum Haemorrhage (Uterine Atony)

Two hours after a vaginal birth a woman has lost 750 mL and the uterus is poorly contracted and palpable above the umbilicus. She had a long labour augmented with oxytocin, and the placenta was delivered complete shortly after birth. Her blood pressure and heart rate remain within normal limits for now, but the bleeding is ongoing. What is the best immediate management?

A. Give tranexamic only

B. Insert a Bakri device

C. Await spontaneous stop

D. Immediate hysterectomy

E. Uterine massage first

Answer: E. Uterine massage first

Primary postpartum haemorrhage is most often due to uterine atony (the commonest of the 'four Ts'). Initial management is bimanual uterine massage and uterotonics (oxytocin, then ergometrine, misoprostol, carboprost), with resuscitation and assessment for genital tract trauma and retained tissue. Escalation includes balloon tamponade and surgery if bleeding persists. A well-contracted uterus with ongoing bleeding suggests a tear or retained products. Rapid, stepwise action is key.

Recall tip Postpartum bleeding with a boggy uterus is atony — massage and give uterotonics while checking for tears and retained tissue. Escalate to tamponade or surgery if it continues.

Question 3 of 10 · Psychiatry · Lithium Toxicity

A patient on lithium presents with confusion, coarse tremor, vomiting and muscle rigidity; the serum lithium level is 2.9 mmol/L. He has been unwell with a gastrointestinal illness over the past few days and has had reduced fluid intake, with his usual lithium dose unchanged. His family say he has become increasingly muddled and slurred in his speech. Which additional feature is most consistent with the diagnosis?

A. Pinpoint pupils now

B. Slow heart rhythm

C. Ataxia on walking

D. Dry warm red skin

E. Facial flushing red

Answer: C. Ataxia on walking

Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index, and toxicity develops with dehydration, renal impairment or interacting drugs. Features include coarse tremor, ataxia, confusion, slurred speech, vomiting and, when severe, seizures and renal failure. A level well above the therapeutic range confirms it. Management is stopping lithium, rehydration and, in severe cases, haemodialysis. Regular monitoring of levels, renal and thyroid function is essential.

Recall tip Coarse tremor, ataxia, confusion and GI upset with a high lithium level is toxicity — stop the drug, rehydrate, and dialyse if severe. Remember its narrow therapeutic window.

Three down. Do the other 97 May questions free in the quiz.

Question 4 of 10 · Cardiology & Respiratory · Cardiac Tamponade

Three days after cardiac bypass surgery a patient develops hypotension, a raised JVP and muffled heart sounds with basal crackles. His chest drains, which had been draining minimally, were removed yesterday, and nursing staff note he has become increasingly short of breath over the past few hours. His pulse volume seems to fall further on inspiration. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Pulmonary embolus

B. Cardiac tamponade

C. Graft blockage now

D. Simple pneumonia

E. Anaphylactic shock

Answer: B. Cardiac tamponade

Cardiac tamponade is compression of the heart by pericardial fluid or blood, a recognised early complication after cardiac surgery. Beck's triad is hypotension, a raised jugular venous pressure and muffled heart sounds; pulsus paradoxus may be present. Echocardiography confirms the effusion and diastolic collapse. Treatment is urgent pericardiocentesis or surgical drainage. It is rapidly fatal if untreated.

Recall tip Post-cardiac-surgery hypotension with a raised JVP and muffled sounds (Beck's triad) is tamponade — urgent drainage. Echo confirms it fast.

Question 5 of 10 · Gastroenterology & Surgery · Acute Cholecystitis

A 46-year-old has right upper quadrant pain, fever and vomiting; ultrasound confirms acute cholecystitis with gallstones. She has had previous episodes of milder right upper quadrant pain after fatty meals that settled on their own, but this episode has persisted for over twelve hours with worsening pain. Her liver function tests are only mildly deranged. What is the best management?

A. Analgesia and discharge

B. Long-term ursodeoxycholic

C. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

D. Oral dissolution therapy

E. ERCP and stone removal

Answer: C. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

Acute cholecystitis is gallbladder inflammation, usually from an obstructing gallstone, causing right upper quadrant pain, fever and a positive Murphy's sign. Ultrasound shows gallstones with a thickened, distended gallbladder. Management is analgesia, antibiotics and early laparoscopic cholecystectomy, ideally during the same admission. ERCP is reserved for coexisting bile duct stones. Delay increases complications such as empyema or perforation.

Recall tip Acute cholecystitis is treated with antibiotics and early laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Add ERCP only if there's a coexisting bile duct stone.

Question 6 of 10 · Renal & Urology · Obstructed Infected Kidney

A 63-year-old has severe left flank pain with fever, rigors and vomiting; imaging shows an obstructing stone with hydronephrosis and he looks septic. His pain started suddenly yesterday and has been unrelenting despite analgesia, and over the past few hours he has become increasingly drowsy and confused. His blood pressure is now low with a rapid heart rate. What is the best management?

A. Analgesia and await stone

B. Oral antibiotics at home

C. Outpatient urology review

D. Urgent tract decompression

E. Elective lithotripsy later

Answer: D. Urgent tract decompression

An obstructing ureteric stone with infection produces an infected, obstructed system — a urological emergency and a cause of rapid sepsis. Management is resuscitation, intravenous antibiotics and urgent decompression of the collecting system by ureteric stent or percutaneous nephrostomy. Definitive stone treatment follows once sepsis resolves. Delay risks septic shock and loss of the kidney. Fever with an obstructing stone is the key red flag.

Recall tip Fever or sepsis with an obstructing stone means urgent decompression (stent or nephrostomy) plus antibiotics — not conservative care. Deal with the stone later.

Six down, 94 to go. The rest of the May 2026 set is free in the quiz, one question per screen with the explanation after you answer. Practise all 100 May 2026 questions free

Question 7 of 10 · Neurology · Central vs Peripheral Vertigo

A 58-year-old has sudden severe vertigo and imbalance and cannot walk unaided; there is direction-changing nystagmus and vascular risk factors. His symptoms started abruptly about an hour ago while watching television, and he has a history of hypertension and high cholesterol with poor medication compliance. He also reports some mild double vision. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Labyrinthitis illness

B. Benign positional type

C. Vestibular neuritis

D. Cerebellar stroke now

E. Meniere disease flare

Answer: D. Cerebellar stroke now

Distinguishing central from peripheral vertigo is critical. Central causes such as cerebellar stroke are suggested by an inability to stand or walk, direction-changing or vertical nystagmus, other neurological signs and vascular risk factors. The HINTS examination helps at the bedside. Suspected central vertigo needs urgent brain imaging, ideally MRI, as CT can miss early posterior-fossa strokes. Peripheral causes have horizontal nystagmus and a preserved, if unsteady, gait.

Recall tip Vertigo with inability to walk, direction-changing nystagmus or other neuro signs is central (think cerebellar stroke) — image urgently. Peripheral vertigo lets the patient still walk, if unsteadily.

Question 8 of 10 · Infectious Diseases · HIV Post-Exposure Prophylaxis

A man who has sex with men learns his partner has just tested HIV positive and asks for the most effective immediate protection after a recent exposure. The exposure occurred two days ago during condomless sex, and he is not currently on any HIV prevention medication. He is understandably anxious and wants to know what can be done now. What is the best option?

A. Antiretroviral prophylaxis

B. Single-dose antibiotic

C. Immunoglobulin infusion

D. HIV vaccine injection

E. No treatment required

Answer: A. Antiretroviral prophylaxis

Post-exposure prophylaxis reduces the risk of HIV acquisition after a significant exposure and should be started as soon as possible, ideally within a few hours and no later than 72 hours. It is a short course of combination antiretroviral therapy, typically for 28 days, with baseline and follow-up testing. Ongoing risk is then managed with pre-exposure prophylaxis. Other sexually transmitted infections and hepatitis are also considered. Speed is critical to efficacy.

Recall tip A recent high-risk HIV exposure needs post-exposure prophylaxis (combination antiretrovirals) started within 72 hours — the sooner the better. Move to PrEP if the risk is ongoing.

Question 9 of 10 · Ethics & Professionalism · Fitness to Drive Notification

A commercial driver reports episodes suggestive of a transient ischaemic attack but refuses assessment and intends to keep driving. He describes two brief episodes of slurred speech and arm weakness over the past month that each resolved within an hour, but he is worried about losing his job and insists he feels fine now. He declines referral for further investigation despite being advised of the risks. What is the best action?

A. Notify the driver authority

B. Respect his wishes now

C. Note it in file only

D. Cancel his licence now

E. Do nothing at present

Answer: A. Notify the driver authority

Doctors should advise patients when a medical condition impairs fitness to drive and, especially for commercial drivers, when to stop. If the patient continues to drive against advice and poses a risk to public safety, the doctor may (and in some jurisdictions must) notify the driver licensing authority, an accepted breach of confidentiality in the public interest. The doctor cannot cancel a licence directly. Advice and reporting are documented. Public safety justifies the disclosure.

Recall tip A dangerous-to-drive patient who won't stop or be assessed can be reported to the licensing authority in the public interest. You advise and notify; the authority decides the licence.

Question 10 of 10 · Biostatistics · Number Needed to Treat

A randomised controlled trial evaluates a new medication for preventing a serious cardiovascular event compared with standard care. A trial reports an absolute risk reduction of 6% for a new treatment. What is the number needed to treat?

A. About 60 patients

B. About 17 patients

C. About 100 patients

D. About 3 patients

E. About 6 patients

Answer: B. About 17 patients

The number needed to treat is the number of patients who must receive a treatment to prevent one additional adverse outcome, calculated as 1 divided by the absolute risk reduction. With an ARR of 6% (0.06), the NNT is 1 divided by 0.06, which is about 17. A lower NNT indicates a more effective treatment. It should be interpreted alongside the baseline risk and the importance of the outcome. NNT translates statistics into clinical meaning.

Recall tip NNT equals 1 divided by the absolute risk reduction — so an ARR of 6% gives an NNT of about 17. A smaller NNT means a more effective treatment.

That's 10 of 100. The full May 2026 set is free in the quiz, which is a closer rehearsal of the Pearson VUE screen than any page you can read. Start the free May 2026 quiz

How to use these AMC MCQ recalls

Ten questions is a sample. The other 90 May questions are free in the quiz, one per screen with the explanation after you answer, which is how the real exam shows them to you.

Recalls tell you what was tested. They don't teach you the medicine. Our rule is simple: use them to direct your attention, then go and learn the topic properly from Therapeutic Guidelines, the RACGP Red Book or the Immunisation Handbook. Candidates who memorise recall answers without the reasoning get caught the moment the AMC changes one detail in the stem, and it always changes one detail.

The combination our team recommends is one paid question bank as your foundation, with the free AMC Recalls monthly sets layered on top as a topic-spotting tool. We compared the main platforms in our AMC Part 1 question bank review; for most candidates on a three to four month timeline that comes out as AMC Academic (20% off any subscription with the code NC94RL at checkout), with the AMC Success Telegram group for discussing each sitting as reports come in. If you have five or six months and a bigger budget, the review explains when alternative platforms such as eMedici and Amedex can help. The full study method, week by week, is in how to pass AMC Part 1 on your first try.

One thing on the timeline that catches people out: passing the AMC CAT MCQ is not the last exam before you can work. AHPRA needs evidence of English before registration, which for most IMGs means IELTS Academic with 7 in every band, or OET with a B in every component. Sit it early, while you're already in exam mode, rather than after your MCQ result. It is also one of the practical reasons AMC Academic comes out ahead in our review: an IELTS Academic preparation course is included in the subscription, so the English test doesn't become a second bill on top of the AMC exam fees.

Other 2026 AMC CAT MCQ recall summaries

Every 2026 sitting has its own summary and its own free 100-question quiz. Topics repeat across months, so the older sets are worth doing too.

• October 2026 recall summary · quiz

• September 2026 recall summary · quiz

• August 2026 recall summary · quiz

• July 2026 recall summary · quiz

• May 2026 (this page) · quiz

• April 2026 recall summary · quiz

• March 2026 recall summary · quiz

• February 2026 recall summary · quiz

June 2026 recall summary · quiz

Ready to practise? Every 2026 sitting is free: 100 questions a month, explanations on every one. Start the May 2026 quiz · Browse all sittings

AMC Recalls is an independent study resource written by doctors who have sat AMC Part 1. We are not affiliated with, endorsed by or connected to the Australian Medical Council, and we have no access to its question bank. The AMC recalls on this page are written from the topics candidates reported after the May 2026 sitting; they are not real exam questions. Our disclaimer explains the process. For eligibility, fees, dates or exam rules, the AMC website is the authority.