AMC MCQ Recalls July 2026: 10 Free Questions and How to Study From Them

Want the whole July 2026 set? All 100 questions are free in the quiz, with the explanation and recall tip after every answer. Start the free July 2026 quiz

July's talking point was a question about an AI scribe in a consultation and what the doctor needed from the patient before switching it on. No textbook you own covers it; the Medical Board's expectations of a new intern do, which is the real syllabus of this exam. The rest was more familiar: bilious vomiting in a neonate from two angles, increased nuchal translucency twice, a massive PE needing thrombolysis, and an SGLT2 inhibitor ketoacidosis with a near-normal glucose, written to punish pattern-matching.

Below are ten of our 100 AMC MCQ recall questions for the July 2026 AMC CAT MCQ. Then, because July is when many people start a serious block for the October and November sittings, we set out how to study for the AMC exam using recalls properly.

What the July 2026 AMC MCQ sitting leaned on

Here is how our 100 July questions break down by specialty, which mirrors the topics candidates reported:

• 14 Paediatrics

• 13 Obstetrics & Gynaecology

• 11 Psychiatry

• 10 GI, Hepatobiliary & Surgery

• 7 ID, Sexual Health & Vaccination

• 6 Ethics & Professionalism

• 6 Cardiology & Vascular

• 6 Respiratory, Emergency & Trauma

• 4 Neurology

• 4 MSK & Rheumatology

• 4 Endocrine & Metabolic

• 3 Dermatology

• 3 Ophthalmology

• 3 Biostatistics & EBM

• 3 ENT, Head & Neck

• 2 Renal & Urology

• 1 Haematology & Oncology

Paediatrics and women's health took 27 of the 100 between them. Psychiatry had eleven, with a strong tilt to drug side effects: akathisia, an acute dystonic reaction, delirium tremens. The ethics block had six and was the most contemporary we've seen, with the AI scribe item, a self-prescribing colleague and Gillick competence. Biostatistics was three questions, and one of them asked about serotype replacement after a vaccine programme, which is epidemiology dressed as microbiology.

If you are planning your weeks, the high-yield topics guide ranks what to cover first, and the pattern in July supports it: the common presentations keep coming, with one or two curveballs per sitting to separate the prepared from the pattern-matchers.

10 free AMC Part 1 recalls from July 2026

Work each recall before you read the answer. The recall tip under each is the exam-day version: the one phrase in the stem that decides the answer.

Question 1 of 10 · Paediatrics · Malrotation with Volvulus (Initial Management)

A 7-day-old boy is brought in vomiting green fluid since the morning. He is lethargic but still latching, capillary refill is under 2 seconds, and he becomes very distressed whenever the abdomen is touched. He was born at term after an uncomplicated pregnancy and had been feeding without difficulty until this morning. His abdomen looks fuller than it did earlier in the day and he has not passed stool since yesterday. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A. Barium meal on the ward

B. NBM, IV fluids and NGT

C. Start oral antibiotics now

D. Reassure and review in 24h

E. Oral rehydration at home

Answer: B. NBM, IV fluids and NGT

Green vomit in a newborn means bilious vomiting, which is malrotation with midgut volvulus until proven otherwise. Bowel can infarct within hours, so the baby is kept nil by mouth, given intravenous fluids and decompressed with a nasogastric tube while paediatric surgery is contacted. Imaging follows resuscitation rather than preceding it. Abdominal tenderness suggests peritonism, which pushes the baby towards theatre rather than the radiology department. Delay is what costs bowel in this condition.

Recall tip Green vomit in a newborn is never reflux. If the stem asks for initial management, resuscitate first; if it asks for the investigation, choose the contrast study.

Question 2 of 10 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Increased Nuchal Translucency (Anatomy Scan and Fetal Echo)

A woman at 13 weeks had a nuchal translucency of 6.3 millimetres. Non-invasive prenatal testing has returned low risk for the common trisomies. The nuchal measurement was well above the expected range for her gestation, and she was relieved by the low-risk result when it came back. She has no family history of congenital abnormality. She asks what happens now. What is the most appropriate next step?

A. Repeat the NIPT blood test

B. No further investigation

C. Second trimester serum screen

D. Anatomy scan and fetal echo

E. Reassure and continue care

Answer: D. Anatomy scan and fetal echo

Non-invasive prenatal testing screens only for the common aneuploidies and sex chromosome abnormalities, so a low-risk result says nothing about fetal structure. A markedly increased nuchal translucency carries a substantially raised risk of congenital heart disease, skeletal dysplasia and genetic syndromes that NIPT cannot see. The correct response is referral for a detailed morphology scan with fetal echocardiography, usually around 20 to 22 weeks. Repeating the NIPT adds nothing because the test has already answered the question it can answer. Reassurance alone is the commonest wrong answer in this stem.

Recall tip NIPT is a chromosome test, not a structure test. A reassuring NIPT never cancels the structural workup that a big nuchal translucency demands.

Question 3 of 10 · Psychiatry · Postpartum Psychosis

A woman is brought in by her husband four weeks after delivery. She has stopped breastfeeding, is not eating, is highly agitated and states that the baby is an evil soul. He has taken over all care of the infant. Her behaviour changed rapidly over the past three days and she has slept only a couple of hours each night. She is guarded, difficult to engage in conversation and becomes distressed when the baby is brought near her. What is the most appropriate management?

A. Outpatient counselling referral

B. Urgent psychiatric admission

C. Commence lithium therapy

D. Reassure and review weekly

E. Start sertraline and review

Answer: B. Urgent psychiatric admission

Delusions concerning the infant carry a high risk of infanticide and of maternal suicide, which is why this is treated as an emergency. Safety comes first through urgent admission, ideally to a mother and baby unit, with formal risk assessment for both mother and child. An atypical antipsychotic is the usual first-line medication once she is in a safe setting. Electroconvulsive therapy is highly effective and is reserved for severe, refractory or life-threatening presentations including catatonia and refusal to eat or drink. Antidepressant monotherapy is inadequate and can worsen psychotic symptoms.

Recall tip Read what the delusion is about. A delusion involving the baby converts a mental health problem into an emergency admission.

Three down. Do the other 97 July questions free in the quiz.

Question 4 of 10 · GI, Hepatobiliary & Surgery · Apixaban Reversal Before Emergency Surgery

A woman on apixaban for atrial fibrillation has a perforated peptic ulcer with haematemesis and requires emergency laparotomy within the hour. She took her last dose of apixaban this morning and is actively bleeding, with her haemoglobin falling on serial testing. Specific reversal agent is not available at this hospital. What is the most appropriate management of her anticoagulation?

A. Switch to low molecular heparin

B. Cease apixaban, give vitamin K

C. Delay surgery for 48 hours

D. Continue apixaban through surgery

E. Cease apixaban and give PCC

Answer: E. Cease apixaban and give PCC

Apixaban is a direct factor Xa inhibitor, so vitamin K is useless because it works through the vitamin K dependent clotting factors that warfarin inhibits. Fresh frozen plasma is also ineffective for reversing direct oral anticoagulants. Andexanet alfa is the specific antidote, and where it is unavailable four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate is used. A true emergency cannot wait for the drug to wash out, so postponing surgery is not an option. Bridging with low molecular weight heparin is a strategy for planned interruption, not for emergencies.

Recall tip Match the reversal to the mechanism. Vitamin K belongs to warfarin; a factor Xa inhibitor needs andexanet alfa or prothrombin complex concentrate.

Question 5 of 10 · ID, Sexual Health & Vaccination · Bacterial Meningitis (Empirical Therapy)

A 21-year-old presents with fever, severe headache, neck stiffness and photophobia after a flu-like illness. He is drowsy but has no focal signs. His symptoms have escalated rapidly over the past twelve hours and his housemates report he was well until yesterday. He is previously healthy and takes no regular medications. Bacterial meningitis is suspected clinically. What is the most appropriate empirical antibiotic therapy?

A. Ceftriaxone and vancomycin

B. Flucloxacillin intravenously

C. Gentamicin and ampicillin

D. Oral doxycycline started

E. Benzylpenicillin alone

Answer: A. Ceftriaxone and vancomycin

Ceftriaxone provides cover against Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae, and vancomycin is added for penicillin-resistant pneumococcus. Dexamethasone is given with or just before the first antibiotic dose to reduce neurological sequelae. Benzylpenicillin is added when Listeria is a concern, which applies to those over fifty, pregnant women and the immunocompromised. Antibiotics must never be delayed while waiting for a computed tomography scan or lumbar puncture. Gram-negative diplococci on the Gram film point to meningococcus, while Gram-positive rods in a farmer suggest Listeria and change the regimen.

Recall tip Do not delay the first dose for imaging. Match any Gram stain result to the organism, because that detail often changes which drug gets added.

Question 6 of 10 · Ethics & Professionalism · AI Scribe Consent and Privacy

The director of a general practice wants to introduce an artificial intelligence scribe that records consultations and generates the clinical note. The tool would run on a tablet in the consulting room and upload the audio to an external provider for processing. The practice doctors have discussed it at a staff meeting and are broadly supportive. Before the tool is used, what is the most appropriate step?

A. Obtain consent from each patient

B. Inform the local health district

C. Advise patients by email later

D. Trial it on selected patients

E. Notify the practice staff only

Answer: A. Obtain consent from each patient

Recording and transcribing a consultation involves handling sensitive health information, which triggers privacy law and professional standards obligations. Each patient must be informed that the tool is being used and must consent before it records, with a genuine ability to decline and still receive care. The practice separately needs data governance covering where the audio is stored, whether it leaves Australia and how long it is retained. The treating clinician remains accountable for the accuracy of the note and must review and verify every generated entry. Agreement among the doctors does not substitute for the patient's consent.

Recall tip Ask whose information is being handled. The answer is the patient's, so the consent must come from the patient rather than the practice team.

Six down, 94 to go. The rest of the July 2026 set is free in the quiz, one question per screen with the explanation after you answer. Practise all 100 July 2026 questions free

Question 7 of 10 · Cardiology & Vascular · Massive Pulmonary Embolism (Thrombolysis)

A 30-year-old woman has sudden shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. Blood pressure is 70 over 50 with a heart rate of 130. The electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia with right heart strain and she is diaphoretic with a reduced conscious state. Her symptoms began abruptly an hour ago and she has deteriorated further since arriving in the department despite oxygen and intravenous fluids. She had a long-haul flight last week and has had no bleeding, recent surgery or head injury. Massive pulmonary embolism is suspected. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

A. Oral apixaban loading dose

B. Low molecular weight heparin

C. Urgent coronary angiography

D. CT pulmonary angiogram now

E. Thrombolysis with alteplase

Answer: E. Thrombolysis with alteplase

Massive or high-risk pulmonary embolism is defined by sustained hypotension or shock resulting from right ventricular failure. Thrombolysis rapidly reduces clot burden and relieves the right ventricular obstruction, and it is indicated when there is no absolute contraindication to bleeding. Anticoagulation alone with heparin does not reverse the existing obstruction quickly enough in a patient who is already shocked. Imaging is desirable but must not delay treatment in a peri-arrest patient, and bedside echocardiography showing right ventricular strain can support the decision. Direct oral anticoagulants have no role in the unstable acute presentation.

Recall tip Blood pressure decides the treatment in pulmonary embolism. Stable means anticoagulate and image; shocked means lyse without waiting for the scan.

Question 8 of 10 · Respiratory, Emergency & Trauma · Tension Pneumothorax

Three days after insertion of a subclavian central line, a patient becomes hypotensive at 80 over 50. There are absent breath sounds over the left chest with dullness to percussion at the left base, and the trachea is deviated to the right. He had been stable since the line was inserted and deteriorated over the past hour. His oxygen saturation is falling despite high-flow oxygen. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

A. Urgent pericardiocentesis performed

B. Insert large bore chest drain

C. Intravenous furosemide given

D. Commence non-invasive ventilation

E. Needle decompression second space

Answer: B. Insert large bore chest drain

The percussion note is the discriminator between the two great causes of tracheal deviation with hypotension. Hyper-resonance indicates a tension pneumothorax and calls for immediate needle decompression followed by a chest drain. Dullness indicates blood filling the pleural space, and a massive haemothorax is treated with a large bore intercostal catheter to drain it and monitor ongoing losses. Blood loss must be replaced at the same time because the chest can hold a large proportion of the circulating volume. Emergency thoracotomy is considered if the initial drainage exceeds about 1500 millilitres or output continues at more than 200 millilitres per hour.

Recall tip Percuss before you decompress. Hyper-resonant means needle first, dull means large bore drain, and getting this backwards is the classic error.

Question 9 of 10 · Endocrine & Metabolic · Euglycaemic Ketoacidosis (SGLT2 Inhibitor)

A woman with type 2 diabetes taking empagliflozin is unwell after surgery and has been fasting. She is nauseated with deep sighing respiration. Venous gas shows a high anion gap metabolic acidosis with strongly positive ketones and a blood glucose of 6.2. Her medications were continued through the perioperative period and she has eaten very little for two days. Her observations show a mild tachycardia and she appears dehydrated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute kidney injury state

B. Simple starvation ketosis

C. Euglycaemic ketoacidosis

D. Metformin lactic acidosis

E. Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemia

Answer: C. Euglycaemic ketoacidosis

Sodium glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitors promote urinary glucose loss, so blood glucose remains near normal while insulin levels fall and ketogenesis proceeds. Fasting, surgery, dehydration and acute illness are the classic precipitants. The result is a high anion gap metabolic acidosis with marked ketosis and a glucose that looks reassuring, which is exactly why the diagnosis is missed. Management is to stop the drug, give intravenous fluids and an insulin infusion with dextrose to permit insulin administration despite normal glucose, and correct electrolytes. These agents should be withheld before planned surgery and during acute illness.

Recall tip A normal glucose does not exclude ketoacidosis. Whenever an SGLT2 inhibitor appears in a stem with acidosis, check ketones rather than trusting the sugar.

Question 10 of 10 · Biostatistics & EBM · False Negative Rate

A polymerase chain reaction test for dengue is evaluated in 200 patients. There are 25 true positives, 2 false negatives, 3 false positives and 170 true negatives. The evaluation compared the test against a reference standard applied to every participant, and the laboratory now wants to describe its performance to referring clinicians. What is the probability that the test will miss a person who truly has the disease?

A. Three divided by 173

B. Two divided by 200

C. Three divided by 170

D. Twenty five over 28

E. Two divided by 27

Answer: E. Two divided by 27

The denominator for a false negative rate is everyone who genuinely has the disease, which is the true positives plus the false negatives. Here that is 25 plus 2, giving 27 diseased people, of whom 2 were missed, so the answer is 2 over 27. The alternative of 3 over 173 is the false positive rate, using the false positives over all healthy people. Dividing by 200 uses the whole population and answers a different question entirely. Examiners frequently rearrange the two by two table so that disease status and test result swap axes.

Recall tip Always redraw the table yourself and label the four cells from the definitions. Then ask which group the question is asking about, because that group is your denominator.

That's 10 of 100. The full July 2026 set is free in the quiz, which is a closer rehearsal of the Pearson VUE screen than any page you can read. Start the free July 2026 quiz

How to use these AMC CAT MCQ recalls

Here is the method, in order. First, skim the topic list for the month (the quiz shows the topic on each question card) and mark anything you couldn't teach to a medical student. Second, go to the Australian source for that topic: Therapeutic Guidelines for prescribing, the RACGP Red Book for screening, the Immunisation Handbook for vaccines. Third, go back to a question bank and do twenty questions on that topic until you stop getting them wrong. Recalls are step one. People fail when they treat them as step three.

Recalls tell you what was tested. They don't teach you the medicine. Our rule is simple: use them to direct your attention, then go and learn the topic properly from Therapeutic Guidelines, the RACGP Red Book or the Immunisation Handbook. Candidates who memorise recall answers without the reasoning get caught the moment the AMC changes one detail in the stem, and it always changes one detail.

The combination our team recommends is one paid question bank as your foundation, with the free AMC Recalls monthly sets layered on top as a topic-spotting tool. We compared the main platforms in our AMC Part 1 question bank review; for most candidates on a three to four month timeline that comes out as AMC Academic (20% off any subscription with the code NC94RL at checkout), with the AMC Success Telegram group for discussing each sitting as reports come in. If you have five or six months and a bigger budget, the review explains when alternative platforms such as eMedici and Amedex can help. The full study method, week by week, is in how to pass AMC Part 1 on your first try.

One thing on the timeline that catches people out: passing the AMC CAT MCQ is not the last exam before you can work. AHPRA needs evidence of English before registration, which for most IMGs means IELTS Academic with 7 in every band, or OET with a B in every component. Sit it early, while you're already in exam mode, rather than after your MCQ result. It is also one of the practical reasons AMC Academic comes out ahead in our review: an IELTS Academic preparation course is included in the subscription, so the English test doesn't become a second bill on top of the AMC exam fees.

Other 2026 AMC MCQ recall summaries

Every 2026 sitting has its own summary and its own free 100-question quiz. Topics repeat across months, so the older sets are worth doing too.

• October 2026 recall summary · quiz

• September 2026 recall summary · quiz

• August 2026 recall summary · quiz

• July 2026 (this page) · quiz

• May 2026 recall summary · quiz

• April 2026 recall summary · quiz

• March 2026 recall summary · quiz

• February 2026 recall summary · quiz

June 2026 recall summary · quiz

Ready to practise? Every 2026 sitting is free: 100 questions a month, explanations on every one. Start the July 2026 quiz · Browse all sittings

AMC Recalls is an independent study resource written by doctors who have sat AMC Part 1. We are not affiliated with, endorsed by or connected to the Australian Medical Council, and we have no access to its question bank. The AMC recalls on this page are written from the topics candidates reported after the July 2026 sitting; they are not real exam questions. Our disclaimer explains the process. For eligibility, fees, dates or exam rules, the AMC website is the authority.