AMC MCQ Recalls October 2026: 10 Free AMC Recalls with Answers

Want the whole October 2026 set? All 100 questions are free in the quiz, with the explanation and recall tip after every answer. Start the free October 2026 quiz

October was the sitting of the next step. Candidates reported stem after stem where the diagnosis was obvious from the first line and the whole question was what you do about it: a 70-year-old with pain out of proportion and atrial fibrillation, a febrile patient with an obstructing stone, a labouring woman with the cord in the vagina, a man five days into haloperidol with lead-pipe rigidity and a temperature of 39.5. If you know the Australian pathway, these are quick marks. If you know only the diagnosis, every option looks reasonable.

Below are ten of our 100 AMC MCQ recalls for the October 2026 AMC Part 1 sitting, with the answer, the reasoning and a recall tip for each. If you are sitting in November, read the "what it leaned on" section first: topics cluster for a few sittings before they drop out, and October's clusters are the ones most likely to come back.

What the October 2026 AMC Part 1 sitting leaned on

Here is how our 100 October questions break down by specialty, which mirrors the topics candidates reported:

• 41 Medicine

• 13 Paediatrics

• 13 Surgery

• 13 Mental Health Psychiatry

• 12 Womens Health

• 8 Population Health Ethics

This month's set is grouped by AMC blueprint section rather than specialty, which is how the exam itself is weighted: adult medicine 41, surgery 13, child health 13, mental health 13, women's health 12 and population health and ethics 8. Set that against the published weightings (30% medicine, 20% surgery, 12.5% for each of the others) and October ran heavier on medicine than the blueprint suggests, mostly because the gastroenterology and hepatology block was large: rebleeding ulcer, Barrett's with high-grade dysplasia, C. difficile, Gilbert, inactive hepatitis B.

Two things stood out. Cluster headache came up twice, once for acute oxygen and once for verapamil prophylaxis, which is the AMC's habit of testing a topic from two angles in the same sitting. And the biostatistics block asked for a forest plot reading, which is rarer than the usual sensitivity and NNT items and worth a look if you're sitting in November. The high-yield topics guide ranks what to cover first in each section.

10 free AMC MCQ recalls from October 2026

Work each recall before you read the answer. The recall tip under each is the exam-day version: the one phrase in the stem that decides the answer.

Question 1 of 10 · Paediatrics · Ileocolic Intussusception

A 2-month-old infant has been crying inconsolably for 12 hours in bouts every 30 minutes, drawing his legs up to his abdomen and settling briefly between episodes. He vomited once and passed a loose stool earlier. He was born at term, has been thriving and had a mild cold last week. He has not had a fever, there is no rash, and the abdomen is soft without distension. His parents say he has never had an episode like this before. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Ileocolic intussusception

B. Infantile colic (functional)

C. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

D. Acute viral gastroenteritis

E. Malrotation with volvulus

Answer: A. Ileocolic intussusception

Intussusception peaks between 3 months and 2 years and presents with intermittent severe colic, pallor, lethargy between episodes and later vomiting and red-currant-jelly stool. The paroxysmal pattern with symptom-free intervals is the key discriminator from volvulus, which causes bilious vomiting and continuous distress. Abdominal ultrasound showing a target sign is the investigation of choice, and air or contrast enema reduces the intussusception in a stable child without peritonitis. Surgery is reserved for failed reduction or perforation.

Recall tip Crying in waves with legs pulled up equals intussusception; bilious vomiting equals malrotation. Investigation is ultrasound, treatment is air enema. Pyloric stenosis vomits but does not scream in paroxysms.

Question 2 of 10 · Womens Health · Cord Prolapse (Knee-Chest Position)

A woman in labour on an oxytocin infusion has membranes rupture and the cord is felt in the vagina. The fetal heart rate drops to 70. Theatre is being prepared. She is a 32-year-old in her third pregnancy at 41 weeks, being induced for post-dates, and the cervix was 6 cm dilated with the head high at the last examination an hour ago. Before the membranes ruptured the CTG was normal. The midwife has pressed the emergency buzzer. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

A. Attempt to replace cord in uterus

B. Increase the oxytocin infusion

C. Knee-chest position, elevate head

D. Urgent bedside ultrasound scan

E. Continue CTG and observe closely

Answer: C. Knee-chest position, elevate head

Cord prolapse causes compression and vasospasm with rapid fetal hypoxia, shown on CTG as deep variable decelerations or bradycardia. Immediate measures are to stop oxytocin, manually elevate the presenting part off the cord, place the mother in knee-chest or exaggerated left lateral position, consider filling the bladder with 500 mL saline, and give terbutaline to reduce contractions. The cord should be handled minimally and not replaced. Delivery is by emergency caesarean unless the cervix is fully dilated and vaginal delivery is imminent.

Recall tip Cord in the vagina equals push the head up, knee-chest, stop oxytocin, call theatre. Do not image, do not observe, do not touch the cord more than necessary. Full dilatation with the head on the perineum is the only time vaginal delivery is chosen.

Question 3 of 10 · Mental Health Psychiatry · Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

A 28-year-old man started haloperidol 5 days ago for a first episode of psychosis. He now has a temperature of 39.5, generalised lead-pipe rigidity, confusion, sweating and labile blood pressure; reflexes are reduced and creatine kinase is markedly raised. He has no history of recent illness, drug use or head injury, and takes no other medication. His psychotic symptoms had been improving on the haloperidol. Examination shows a pulse of 124 and a respiratory rate of 24, and his white cell count is mildly raised. What is the most appropriate first step in management?

A. Give intravenous dantrolene now

B. Cease all antipsychotic medication

C. Give oral bromocriptine immediately

D. Give intravenous diazepam sedation

E. Give intramuscular benztropine now

Answer: B. Cease all antipsychotic medication

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome develops days to weeks after starting or increasing a dopamine antagonist and comprises hyperthermia, lead-pipe rigidity, autonomic instability, altered consciousness and raised creatine kinase, with hyporeflexia distinguishing it from serotonin syndrome. The cornerstone is immediate withdrawal of the antipsychotic and any potentiating drugs, then ICU-level supportive care with cooling and IV fluids to prevent rhabdomyolysis and renal failure. Bromocriptine is the antidote recommended for severe or prolonged cases, with dantrolene for refractory rigidity and hyperthermia. Benztropine treats acute dystonia, not NMS.

Recall tip If the options include stopping the drug, that is the first step; if they do not, choose bromocriptine or dantrolene. Hyporeflexia and lead-pipe rigidity mean NMS, hyperreflexia and clonus mean serotonin syndrome. Never sedate NMS with another antipsychotic.

Three down. Do the other 97 October questions free in the quiz.

Question 4 of 10 · Medicine · NSTEMI (Early Invasive Strategy)

A 62-year-old smoker had 40 minutes of central chest pain 4 hours ago. He has received aspirin, ticagrelor, enoxaparin and nitrate and is now pain-free. ECG shows new T-wave inversion in V2 to V5 without ST elevation, and troponin has risen from 480 to 1250 ng/L. He has hypertension and type 2 diabetes and takes perindopril and metformin. The pain was retrosternal, radiated to the left arm and was associated with sweating, and he has had no further pain since the nitrate. Blood pressure is 134/82, pulse 78, and there are no signs of heart failure. What is the most appropriate next step?

A. Give a further 300 mg of aspirin

B. Stress echocardiography pre-discharge

C. Coronary angiography within 24 hours

D. Thrombolysis with tenecteplase now

E. Repeat troponin in six hours' time

Answer: C. Coronary angiography within 24 hours

A rising troponin with dynamic ECG changes defines NSTEMI, and this patient has several high-risk features that place him in the early invasive category under Australian ACS guidelines, meaning angiography within 24 hours after dual antiplatelet therapy and anticoagulation. Thrombolysis is reserved for ST-elevation infarction without timely access to primary PCI. Serial troponin is unnecessary once the diagnosis is confirmed, and stress testing is for stable patients with a negative work-up. He has already received a loading dose of aspirin.

Recall tip Troponin rising plus ECG change equals NSTEMI equals angiography within 24 hours. Thrombolysis is only for STEMI, and stress testing is only for stable chest pain with normal biomarkers. Do not waste the answer on another troponin.

Question 5 of 10 · Surgery · Gallstone Pancreatitis (Fluid Resuscitation)

A 52-year-old woman presents with constant right upper quadrant pain radiating to the back, nausea and mild scleral icterus. Temperature is 37.2, pulse 98, BP 124/78, and there is no guarding. Lipase is 680 U/L. Ultrasound shows multiple gallstones, a thin-walled gallbladder and a 10 mm common bile duct with no stone seen. The pain began 8 hours ago after a large meal and has not settled with oral analgesia at home. She has had two similar but milder episodes in the past year that resolved within hours. She drinks alcohol rarely, takes no regular medication, and her white cell count is 13.2 with a bilirubin of 48 micromol/L. After analgesia, what is the most appropriate initial management?

A. Intravenous fluid resuscitation

B. Urgent ERCP for biliary drainage

C. Discharge for outpatient review

D. Emergency cholecystectomy today

E. Percutaneous cholecystostomy

Answer: A. Intravenous fluid resuscitation

Elevated lipase with gallstones establishes acute gallstone pancreatitis, and management begins with IV crystalloid resuscitation (moderate rather than aggressive rates are now favoured), analgesia, antiemetics and monitoring. Early ERCP is indicated only when cholangitis is present or biliary obstruction persists, because it adds pancreatitis and perforation risk without benefit in mild disease. A dilated duct without a visible stone in a stable patient is evaluated with MRCP or endoscopic ultrasound after resuscitation. Cholecystectomy is performed in the same admission once the pancreatitis settles. Discharge is unsafe.

Recall tip Pancreatitis stem asking the first step equals fluids; the same stem with fever and rigors equals ERCP. Dilated duct and no fever equals MRCP. Same-admission cholecystectomy is the final step, never the first.

Question 6 of 10 · Surgery · Acute Mesenteric Ischaemia (CT Angiography)

A 70-year-old man with a previous myocardial infarction presents with severe abdominal pain out of proportion to a soft abdomen, one episode of bloody stool and an irregularly irregular pulse. The pain began suddenly 4 hours ago and he has vomited twice. He takes aspirin and metoprolol and has had no previous abdominal surgery. Pulse is 118, blood pressure 108/70, and the abdomen is soft with mild generalised tenderness and no guarding. What is the most appropriate next investigation?

A. CT angiography of the abdomen

B. Diagnostic laparoscopy in theatre

C. Ultrasound scan of the abdomen

D. Plain erect abdominal radiograph

E. Colonoscopy after bowel preparation

Answer: A. CT angiography of the abdomen

Atrial fibrillation is the leading source of emboli to the superior mesenteric artery, and acute mesenteric ischaemia presents with sudden severe pain that is disproportionate to minimal examination findings, often with vomiting, bloody diarrhoea and a raised lactate. CT angiography in arterial and portal venous phases shows the occlusion and bowel viability and is the investigation of choice. Colonoscopy and ultrasound delay diagnosis, and plain films are usually normal until infarction. Treatment is urgent revascularisation and resection of non-viable bowel.

Recall tip Irregular pulse plus pain out of proportion equals mesenteric ischaemia equals CT angiography. A soft abdomen does not reassure in this stem. The same patient with guarding and shock goes straight to surgery.

Six down, 94 to go. The rest of the October 2026 set is free in the quiz, one question per screen with the explanation after you answer. Practise all 100 October 2026 questions free

Question 7 of 10 · Surgery · Infected Obstructed Kidney (Decompression)

A patient presents with severe right flank pain, fever of 38.5 and rigors. CT shows a 7 mm obstructing mid-ureteric stone with hydronephrosis. The patient is a 46-year-old woman whose pain began 18 hours ago and has been only partly relieved by intravenous morphine. She has vomited three times. Pulse is 118, blood pressure 102/68, and urinalysis shows leucocytes and nitrites. Creatinine is 140 micromol/L and white cell count 18. What is the most appropriate management?

A. Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy

B. IV antibiotics and IV fluids alone

C. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy today

D. Analgesia and tamsulosin at home

E. Urgent ureteric stent or nephrostomy

Answer: E. Urgent ureteric stent or nephrostomy

Infection proximal to an obstructing stone produces pyonephrosis and can progress to septic shock within hours, and antibiotics cannot penetrate an undrained, pressurised collecting system. The patient needs IV antibiotics, fluids and emergency decompression by retrograde ureteric stent or percutaneous nephrostomy, with definitive stone removal deferred until sepsis has resolved. Lithotripsy and nephrolithotomy in an infected system risk bacteraemia. An afebrile patient with a stone of 10 mm or less, no hydronephrosis and controlled pain can be discharged with analgesia, tamsulosin and urology follow-up.

Recall tip Stone plus fever equals drain first, antibiotics with it, stone later. Stone without fever or obstruction equals analgesia and expulsive therapy. Definitive lithotripsy is never the answer in sepsis.

Question 8 of 10 · Medicine · Cluster Headache (Acute Oxygen)

A 35-year-old man has a 2-week history of severe left retro-orbital headache occurring three to five times daily, each lasting 15 to 30 minutes, with left conjunctival injection, lacrimation and rhinorrhoea. He presents during an attack. The attacks often wake him at night. He had a similar 6-week period of headaches 2 years ago that resolved on its own. He has no fever, neck stiffness or visual loss, and neurological examination between attacks is normal. What is the most appropriate acute treatment?

A. High-flow 100% oxygen by mask

B. Oral amitriptyline at night

C. Oral paracetamol and codeine

D. Intravenous fentanyl bolus

E. Oral propranolol tablet

Answer: A. High-flow 100% oxygen by mask

Cluster headache is a trigeminal autonomic cephalalgia producing excruciating strictly unilateral orbital pain with ipsilateral tearing, nasal congestion, ptosis or miosis, lasting 15 to 180 minutes and recurring up to several times a day in bouts. Acute attacks are aborted with 100 percent oxygen at 12 to 15 litres per minute through a non-rebreather mask for 15 to 20 minutes, or subcutaneous or intranasal sumatriptan; oral analgesics and opioids are too slow and ineffective. Propranolol and amitriptyline are migraine and tension preventives, not cluster treatments.

Recall tip One-sided eye pain with a red watery eye and runny nose in short bursts equals cluster; the acute answer is oxygen, then injectable triptan. Opioids and simple analgesics are always wrong. Horner-like ptosis and miosis during the attack do not mean a tumour.

Question 9 of 10 · Population Health Ethics · HIV Confidentiality and Partner Tracing

A couple attend for HIV testing. The husband is positive and the wife is negative. After counselling, he refuses to tell her but states he will use condoms consistently and forbids the doctor from disclosing. The testing was done because the husband had been unwell with a flu-like illness. They have been married for 6 years and have two children. He agrees to start antiretroviral treatment and to attend the sexual health clinic, and says he needs time to think about how to tell her. What is the most appropriate action?

A. Report him to the police for assault

B. Keep confidence, counsel, offer tracing

C. Discharge him from the practice list

D. Refuse to treat him until he discloses

E. Breach confidence and inform the wife now

Answer: B. Keep confidence, counsel, offer tracing

HIV is notifiable to the public health unit as de-identified data, but the clinician's duty of confidentiality to the patient remains, and direct disclosure to a partner without consent is permitted only in the rare situation of a serious, imminent and specific risk that cannot otherwise be mitigated. When the patient is engaged in care, agrees to condoms and is starting treatment toward an undetectable viral load, the risk is being managed, so the correct path is ongoing counselling to encourage disclosure, offering anonymous partner notification through the sexual health or public health service, and offering the partner PrEP and testing. Refusing care, police involvement or breaching confidentiality are inappropriate.

Recall tip HIV partner questions resolve to confidentiality plus counselling plus anonymous contact tracing, not to telling the wife. Notification to public health is statistical and does not identify him to his partner. Direct disclosure is reserved for an imminent unmitigated danger, which condom use removes.

Question 10 of 10 · Population Health Ethics · Forest Plot Interpretation

A meta-analysis compares antibiotic X with antibiotic Y for otitis media. On the forest plot, every study's point estimate and confidence interval lie to the left of the line of no effect on the side favouring X, and the summary diamond also lies entirely to the left without touching the line. The meta-analysis pooled eight randomised trials with a total of 2400 children and reported treatment failure at 2 weeks as the primary outcome. The authors used a random-effects model and reported the pooled relative risk. What is the correct interpretation?

A. No statistically significant difference

B. Y is significantly more effective

C. X is significantly more effective

D. The studies are too heterogeneous

E. The result cannot be interpreted

Answer: C. X is significantly more effective

Each square on a forest plot is a study's point estimate, its horizontal line is the confidence interval, and the diamond summarises the pooled effect with its width showing the pooled confidence interval. Statistical significance is present when the diamond does not cross the vertical line of no effect, which is 1 for ratio measures and 0 for differences. When the diamond sits wholly on the side labelled 'favours X', drug X is significantly superior. Heterogeneity is read from the I-squared statistic, not from the direction of the squares.

Recall tip Find the diamond and ask one question: does it touch the vertical line? No means significant, in whichever direction it sits; yes means not significant. Ignore the number of studies and the size of the squares.

That's 10 of 100. The full October 2026 set is free in the quiz, which is a closer rehearsal of the Pearson VUE screen than any page you can read. Start the free October 2026 quiz

How to use these AMC CAT MCQ recalls

Ten AMC recalls calibrate you; the quiz trains you. The remaining 90 October recalls are free there, one per screen with the explanation after you answer, which is the format you'll meet at Pearson VUE.

Recalls tell you what was tested. They don't teach you the medicine. Our rule is simple: use them to direct your attention, then go and learn the topic properly from Therapeutic Guidelines, the RACGP Red Book or the Immunisation Handbook. Candidates who memorise recall answers without the reasoning get caught the moment the AMC changes one detail in the stem, and it always changes one detail.

The combination our team recommends is one paid question bank as your foundation, with the free AMC Recalls monthly sets layered on top as a topic-spotting tool. We compared the main platforms in our AMC Part 1 question bank review; for most candidates on a three to four month timeline that comes out as AMC Academic (20% off any subscription with the code NC94RL at checkout), with the AMC Success Telegram group for discussing each sitting as reports come in. If you have five or six months and a bigger budget, the review explains when alternative platforms such as eMedici and Amedex can help. The full study method, week by week, is in how to pass AMC Part 1 on your first try.

One thing on the timeline that catches people out: passing the AMC CAT MCQ is not the last exam before you can work. AHPRA needs evidence of English before registration, which for most IMGs means IELTS Academic with 7 in every band, or OET with a B in every component. Sit it early, while you're already in exam mode, rather than after your MCQ result. It is also one of the practical reasons AMC Academic comes out ahead in our review: an IELTS Academic preparation course is included in the subscription, so the English test doesn't become a second bill on top of the AMC exam fees.

Ready to practise? Every 2026 sitting is free: 100 questions a month, explanations on every one. Start the October 2026 quiz · Browse all sittings

AMC Recalls is an independent study resource written by doctors who have sat AMC Part 1. We are not affiliated with, endorsed by or connected to the Australian Medical Council, and we have no access to its question bank. The AMC recalls on this page are written from the topics candidates reported after the October 2026 sitting; they are not real exam questions. Our disclaimer explains the process. For eligibility, fees, dates or exam rules, the AMC website is the authority.