AMC MCQ Recalls June 2026: 10 Free Questions and What the Exam Pattern Rewards

Want the whole June 2026 set? All 100 questions are free in the quiz, with the explanation and recall tip after every answer. Start the free June 2026 quiz

June rewarded people who knew the first step. Not the diagnosis; the first step. Cord prolapse, VF arrest, a child in status, acute cardiogenic pulmonary oedema: in each stem the diagnosis was handed over and the question was what you do in the next sixty seconds. That is a very Australian way of examining, because it is how the intern year works. Below are ten of our 100 AMC MCQ recall questions for the June 2026 AMC Part 1 sitting, with answers and recall tips.

Because June was so decision-focused, this is also the month to talk about the AMC exam pattern. If you are coming from NEET-PG or FCPS, the computer-adaptive, forward-only format changes how you handle a question you aren't sure about. We cover that below and in full in the AMC CAT MCQ format guide.

What the June 2026 AMC Part 1 CAT MCQ sitting leaned on

Here is how our 100 June questions break down by specialty, which mirrors the topics candidates reported:

• 14 Paediatrics

• 14 Obstetrics & Gynaecology

• 13 Cardiology, Respiratory & Emergency

• 12 Gastroenterology & General Surgery

• 8 Psychiatry

• 7 Endocrine & Rheumatology

• 5 Renal & Urology

• 5 Neurology

• 4 Infectious Diseases

• 4 Ethics & Professionalism

• 3 Ophthalmology

• 3 Dermatology

• 3 ENT & Head and Neck

• 3 Biostatistics

• 2 Haematology & Oncology

Paediatrics and women's health had fourteen each, which is the top of their usual range. Cardiology, respiratory and emergency together had thirteen, and that block was where the sitting felt hardest. Gastro and general surgery had twelve, including bowel cancer screening in a man with one first-degree relative, where the answer is still iFOBT every two years and not a colonoscopy.

Biostatistics was three questions, one of them on relative risk reduction, which is the calculation candidates most often set up backwards. Ethics was four, and one asked about a competent adult refusing treatment, which comes up almost every sitting in some form. The high-yield topics guide has the full ranking by blueprint section.

10 free AMC MCQ recalls from June 2026

Work each recall before you read the answer. The recall tip under each is the exam-day version: the one phrase in the stem that decides the answer.

Question 1 of 10 · Paediatrics · Complex Febrile Seizure

A 15-month-old has a generalised seizure lasting 20 minutes; the temperature is 39°C afterwards and there is a family history of febrile seizures. He had been unsettled with a runny nose and reduced appetite the day before, and the seizure involved rhythmic jerking of all four limbs before stopping on its own. He returns to his normal self. On assessment shortly afterwards there is no neck stiffness, rash, or focal neurological signs, and he is interactive and drinking normally. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Simple febrile seizure

B. Complex febrile seizure

C. Epileptic seizure type

D. Bacterial meningitis

E. Absence seizure event

Answer: B. Complex febrile seizure

Febrile seizures occur in children 6 months to 6 years with fever and no CNS infection. Simple seizures are generalised, under 15 minutes and occur once in 24 hours; complex seizures have any of prolonged, focal, or repeated features. A 20-minute seizure is therefore complex. Complex features modestly raise the later epilepsy risk and may prompt further assessment. A prompt return to baseline is reassuring.

Recall tip Duration and focality decide it: over 15 minutes, focal, or more than once in 24 hours means complex. Anything else is simple.

Question 2 of 10 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Cord Prolapse

A labouring woman on oxytocin has her membranes rupture and then feels something in the vagina; a pulsating cord is felt below the presenting part and the fetal heart rate is 65. She is 38 weeks into her second pregnancy with the fetus in a breech presentation, and the midwife calls for urgent help. What is the best immediate action?

A. Knee-chest positioning

B. Start continuous CTG

C. Reduce oxytocin rate

D. Urgent bedside scan

E. Await spontaneous birth

Answer: A. Knee-chest positioning

Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency causing fetal bradycardia from cord compression. Immediate measures relieve pressure: knee-chest or Trendelenburg position, manually elevating the presenting part, and filling the bladder. Tocolysis such as terbutaline can reduce contractions while theatre is prepared. Definitive management is emergency caesarean unless birth is imminent. Continuous monitoring guides urgency but is not the first action.

Recall tip In cord prolapse, relieve compression before anything else, then call for emergency caesarean. Don't waste time on imaging.

Question 3 of 10 · Psychiatry · Suicide Risk Assessment

A recently divorced man with heavy drinking since losing his job says he has a gun at home and plans to use it tonight; he feels hopeless. He has no previous psychiatric history and was brought to the emergency department by a concerned friend after voicing these thoughts. He denies any protective factors such as family contact he feels connected to right now. Which factor most indicates immediate risk?

A. Clear plan with means

B. Loss of employment

C. Living by himself now

D. Male gender and age

E. Recent alcohol misuse

Answer: A. Clear plan with means

Many features raise chronic suicide risk, but imminent danger is signalled by a specific, lethal plan with available means and an intended timeframe. Access to a firearm and intent to act tonight are acute red flags demanding urgent safety action. Demographic and social factors matter but are less immediately predictive. Assessment leads to urgent mental-health involvement and means restriction. Hopelessness compounds the risk.

Recall tip When ranking suicide risk, a concrete plan with the means to carry it out beats static demographic factors. Access to a lethal method plus intent means act now.

Three down. Do the other 97 June questions free in the quiz.

Question 4 of 10 · Cardiology, Respiratory & Emergency · STEMI Reperfusion

A 62-year-old has 45 minutes of crushing central chest pain with sweating and nausea; the ECG shows ST elevation in the anterior leads. The pain radiates to his left arm and jaw, and he has a history of smoking and high cholesterol. He is haemodynamically stable with no known bleeding risk. What is the best management?

A. Repeat ECG in 2 hours

B. Arrange a stress test

C. Await troponin result

D. Primary PCI reperfusion

E. Discharge with follow-up

Answer: D. Primary PCI reperfusion

ST-elevation myocardial infarction reflects acute coronary occlusion and is time-critical. Immediate reperfusion restores flow; primary percutaneous coronary intervention is preferred when achievable within recommended times. Fibrinolysis is used if timely PCI is unavailable. Waiting for troponin or repeating the ECG delays life-saving treatment. Antiplatelets, anticoagulation and analgesia are given alongside.

Recall tip ST elevation with ischaemic pain means reperfuse now, PCI first choice. Don't wait for troponin — the ECG is enough.

Question 5 of 10 · Cardiology, Respiratory & Emergency · Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

A person is brought in after carbon monoxide exposure, having been rescued from a house fire with smoke inhalation. They are drowsy with a headache and nausea, and pulse oximetry reads 97% on room air despite clear exposure. What is the appropriate oxygen therapy?

A. CPAP support only

B. Room-air observation

C. Nasal prongs 2 L/min

D. High-flow 100% oxygen

E. Venturi mask 28% O2

Answer: D. High-flow 100% oxygen

Carbon monoxide binds haemoglobin with high affinity, impairing oxygen delivery, and pulse oximetry can read falsely normal. High-flow 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather mask shortens the carboxyhaemoglobin half-life dramatically. Hyperbaric oxygen is considered for severe poisoning such as loss of consciousness, pregnancy or high levels. Treat until symptoms resolve and levels fall. Identify and remove the source.

Recall tip Any suspected carbon monoxide poisoning gets high-flow 100% oxygen immediately, whatever the SpO₂ reads. Consider hyperbaric oxygen for severe cases.

Question 6 of 10 · Gastroenterology & General Surgery · Bowel Cancer Screening

An asymptomatic 52-year-old wants bowel cancer screening; his father had colorectal cancer diagnosed at 68 and there is no other family history. He has no personal history of bowel disease, no rectal bleeding or change in bowel habit, and has never had a colonoscopy before. He is otherwise well and takes no regular medications. What is the best strategy?

A. Yearly stool occult test

B. No screening required

C. Colonoscopy each 5 years

D. Colonoscopy every decade

E. iFOBT every two years

Answer: E. iFOBT every two years

Family history stratifies bowel cancer risk. Per the 2023 Cancer Council Australia guidelines, one first-degree relative diagnosed at 55 or older confers only near-average risk, managed like the general population with immunochemical faecal occult blood testing every two years (from age 45–50). A relative diagnosed under 55, or multiple affected relatives, indicates moderate risk warranting colonoscopy. Suspected hereditary syndromes need genetics referral. Symptoms always override screening and require colonoscopy.

Recall tip One first-degree relative with bowel cancer at 55 or over means routine two-yearly iFOBT. Younger onset or several relatives shifts you to colonoscopy.

Six down, 94 to go. The rest of the June 2026 set is free in the quiz, one question per screen with the explanation after you answer. Practise all 100 June 2026 questions free

Question 7 of 10 · Renal & Urology · Painless Haematuria (Bladder Cancer)

A 65-year-old has one episode of painless visible blood in the urine; there is no pain, infection or trauma, and urine culture is negative. He is a long-term smoker and has not noticed the bleeding again since the single episode a week ago. He has no weight loss, flank pain, or lower urinary tract symptoms. What is the best investigation?

A. CT KUB scan study

B. Renal ultrasound scan

C. Urine cytology test

D. Flexible cystoscopy

E. Repeat urine micro

Answer: D. Flexible cystoscopy

Painless visible haematuria in an adult over about 45 is bladder cancer until proven otherwise. Cystoscopy directly inspects the bladder and urethra, complemented by upper-tract imaging such as CT urography. A negative culture removes infection as the cause. Smoking is a major risk factor. Prompt referral avoids delayed diagnosis.

Recall tip Painless visible haematuria in an older adult means cystoscopy plus upper-tract imaging. Assume urothelial cancer until it is excluded.

Question 8 of 10 · Endocrine & Rheumatology · Diabetic Ketoacidosis

A young man with type 1 diabetes has a day of vomiting, abdominal pain, thirst and polyuria; his blood gas shows a high-anion-gap metabolic acidosis. He admits to missing several insulin doses over the past two days after running out of his prescription, and he has been breathing rapidly and deeply since arriving. His breath has a distinctive sweet odour. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute pancreatitis flare

B. Diabetic ketoacidosis

C. Hyperosmolar state now

D. Ethylene glycol toxin

E. Alcoholic ketoacidosis

Answer: B. Diabetic ketoacidosis

Diabetic ketoacidosis is defined by hyperglycaemia, ketonaemia and a high-anion-gap metabolic acidosis, often precipitated by infection or missed insulin. Symptoms include polyuria, thirst, vomiting, abdominal pain and Kussmaul breathing. Management is IV fluids, an insulin infusion and careful potassium replacement, plus treating the trigger. Monitor glucose, ketones, potassium and pH. Cerebral oedema is a feared complication in children.

Recall tip Type 1 diabetes with ketosis and a high-anion-gap acidosis is DKA. Treat with fluids, insulin and potassium, and find the precipitant.

Question 9 of 10 · Ethics & Professionalism · Competent Adult Refusal of Treatment

A competent adult with capacity clearly refuses a recommended treatment after understanding the risks. He has been given a clear explanation of the diagnosis, the recommended treatment and the likely consequences of declining it, and he is able to explain his reasoning consistently. His family disagrees with his decision and asks the treating team to proceed anyway. What is the most appropriate action?

A. Get family to decide

B. Respect the refusal

C. Seek a court order

D. Treat him regardless

E. Declare him unfit now

Answer: B. Respect the refusal

Autonomy allows a competent adult with decision-making capacity to refuse any treatment, even one that is life-sustaining, after being properly informed. Capacity means understanding, retaining and weighing the information and communicating a choice. A valid, applicable advance directive carries the same authority once the person loses capacity. The clinician documents the discussion and offers ongoing support. Overriding a capable refusal is unlawful.

Recall tip A capable, informed adult can refuse treatment and you must respect it — even if the choice seems unwise. Confirm capacity and document the conversation.

Question 10 of 10 · Biostatistics · Relative Risk Reduction

In a clinical trial comparing a new drug against placebo for preventing a cardiovascular event over two years of follow-up, researchers calculate the difference in outcome rates between the two groups. A drug lowers an event rate from 20% to 10%. What is the relative risk reduction?

A. Ninety percent (90%)

B. Ten percent (10%)

C. Fifty percent (50%)

D. Two percent (2%)

E. Twenty percent (20%)

Answer: C. Fifty percent (50%)

Relative risk reduction is the difference in event rates divided by the control event rate: (20% minus 10%) divided by 20% equals 50%. Absolute risk reduction is the plain difference, 10%, and the number needed to treat is its reciprocal, here 10. Relative measures can look impressive while the absolute benefit is small, so both should be considered. Always check the baseline risk. NNT translates the benefit into patients treated per event prevented.

Recall tip Relative risk reduction divides the difference by the control rate (here 50%); absolute is just the difference (10%). Beware big relative numbers hiding small absolute benefits.

That's 10 of 100. The full June 2026 set is free in the quiz, which is a closer rehearsal of the Pearson VUE screen than any page you can read. Start the free June 2026 quiz

How to use these AMC Part 1 recalls

Ten questions on a page are a calibration check. The quiz is the rehearsal. The other 90 June questions are free there, one per screen, with the explanation after you answer, which is the format you'll face in October.

Recalls tell you what was tested. They don't teach you the medicine. Our rule is simple: use them to direct your attention, then go and learn the topic properly from Therapeutic Guidelines, the RACGP Red Book or the Immunisation Handbook. Candidates who memorise recall answers without the reasoning get caught the moment the AMC changes one detail in the stem, and it always changes one detail.

The combination our team recommends is one paid question bank as your foundation, with the free AMC Recalls monthly sets layered on top as a topic-spotting tool. We compared the main platforms in our AMC Part 1 question bank review; for most candidates on a three to four month timeline that comes out as AMC Academic (20% off any subscription with the code NC94RL at checkout), with the AMC Success Telegram group for discussing each sitting as reports come in. If you have five or six months and a bigger budget, the review explains when alternative platforms such as eMedici and Amedex can help. The full study method, week by week, is in how to pass AMC Part 1 on your first try.

One thing on the timeline that catches people out: passing the AMC CAT MCQ is not the last exam before you can work. AHPRA needs evidence of English before registration, which for most IMGs means IELTS Academic with 7 in every band, or OET with a B in every component. Sit it early, while you're already in exam mode, rather than after your MCQ result. It is also one of the practical reasons AMC Academic comes out ahead in our review: an IELTS Academic preparation course is included in the subscription, so the English test doesn't become a second bill on top of the AMC exam fees.

Other 2026 AMC Part 1 CAT MCQ recall summaries

Every 2026 sitting has its own summary and its own free 100-question quiz. Topics repeat across months, so the older sets are worth doing too.

• October 2026 recall summary · quiz

• September 2026 recall summary · quiz

• August 2026 recall summary · quiz

• July 2026 recall summary · quiz

• May 2026 recall summary · quiz

• April 2026 recall summary · quiz

• March 2026 recall summary · quiz

• February 2026 recall summary · quiz

June 2026 (this page) · quiz

Ready to practise? Every 2026 sitting is free: 100 questions a month, explanations on every one. Start the June 2026 quiz · Browse all sittings

AMC Recalls is an independent study resource written by doctors who have sat AMC Part 1. We are not affiliated with, endorsed by or connected to the Australian Medical Council, and we have no access to its question bank. The AMC recalls on this page are written from the topics candidates reported after the June 2026 sitting; they are not real exam questions. Our disclaimer explains the process. For eligibility, fees, dates or exam rules, the AMC website is the authority.