AMC MCQ Recalls March 2026: 10 Free Questions and How Hard the Exam Really Is

Want the whole March 2026 set? All 100 questions are free in the quiz, with the explanation and recall tip after every answer. Start the free March 2026 quiz

Every March we get the same message afterwards: "it was easier than I expected and I still don't think I passed." Both halves are true. The AMC MCQ does not ask obscure things. It asks common things in a way that assumes you've worked in an Australian hospital, and if you haven't, every option looks plausible. A neonate with low glucose: feed, or IV dextrose? Painless bleeding at 32 weeks: what do you not do? Potassium 6.8 with ECG changes: what's first? Below are ten of our 100 AMC MCQ recall questions for the March 2026 AMC CAT MCQ, with answers and recall tips.

At the end we answer, properly, the question people type into Google more than any other: is the AMC exam hard?

What the March 2026 AMC Part 1 sitting leaned on

Here is how our 100 March questions break down by specialty, which mirrors the topics candidates reported:

• 13 Obstetrics & Gynaecology

• 12 Paediatrics

• 12 Infectious & Sexual Health, Ethics, Biostatistics & Genetics

• 11 Dermatology, ENT, Haematology & Oncology

• 10 Psychiatry

• 10 Gastroenterology & Surgery

• 8 Cardiology & Respiratory

• 6 Emergency & Trauma

• 6 Renal & Urology

• 6 Endocrine & Rheumatology

• 6 Neurology

Thirteen women's health, twelve paediatrics, twelve in the infectious disease, ethics and biostatistics block, ten psychiatry, ten gastro and surgery. Emergency had six, and the haemorrhagic shock classification question was the one that separated people who had read ATLS from people who had read about it.

Primary HPV screening came up, as it does most sittings, and the five-yearly test from age 25 is still being answered as a Pap smear by candidates trained elsewhere. Rapid tranquillisation and acute mania both appeared, which fits a pattern we've seen since late 2025 of psychiatry questions moving from diagnosis to management. The high-yield topics guide has the weighting by section.

10 free AMC MCQ recalls from March 2026

Work each recall before you read the answer. The recall tip under each is the exam-day version: the one phrase in the stem that decides the answer.

Question 1 of 10 · Paediatrics · Neonatal Hypoglycaemia

A neonate who was well at birth becomes jittery, then cyanosed, and improves with oxygen; a similarly unwell child is found drowsy. The neonate's mother has diabetes and delivery was uncomplicated, with the jitteriness noticed by nursing staff a few hours after birth. The older child had reduced oral intake over the preceding day before being found unusually sleepy. What should be checked and treated first?

A. Bedside blood glucose

B. Chest radiograph

C. Full sepsis screen

D. Twelve-lead ECG

E. Arterial blood gas

Answer: A. Bedside blood glucose

Hypoglycaemia is a common, rapidly reversible cause of jitteriness, cyanosis, drowsiness and seizures in neonates and children. A bedside glucose takes seconds and comes before sepsis screens, gases or imaging. If low, IV 10% dextrose (about 2 mL/kg) usually reverses symptoms. Oral glucose is unsafe in a drowsy or seizing child. The underlying cause is then investigated.

Recall tip Any off, jittery or drowsy child gets a glucose stick before anything else. A low reading means IV dextrose, not more tests or another anticonvulsant.

Question 2 of 10 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Placenta Praevia

A woman at 32 weeks has painless vaginal bleeding, is haemodynamically stable with a normal fetal heart rate, and praevia is suspected. She noticed the bleeding suddenly this morning with no preceding trauma or pain, and it has settled to minimal spotting since arriving at hospital. Her anomaly scan at 20 weeks had noted a low-lying placenta. Most appropriate next step?

A. Transvaginal scan

B. Digital vaginal exam

C. Speculum exam now

D. Immediate caesarean

E. Induce labour now

Answer: A. Transvaginal scan

Placenta praevia classically causes painless late-pregnancy bleeding, and a digital vaginal examination can provoke catastrophic haemorrhage. Transvaginal ultrasound is safe and accurately locates the placenta. The stable patient is monitored, IV access is secured, and blood is grouped and crossmatched in anticipation of bleeding. Steroids are considered for prematurity. Delivery is by caesarean if bleeding is significant or at term.

Recall tip Painless third-trimester bleeding is praevia until proven otherwise, so image first and never do a digital exam. Group and hold blood while you arrange the scan.

Question 3 of 10 · Psychiatry · Acute Mania Management

A man with bipolar disorder has an acute manic episode but is still functioning at work, with agitation and increased activity. His family have noticed him sleeping only a few hours a night for the past week while taking on multiple new projects at once, talking rapidly and appearing unusually irritable when interrupted. He has managed to keep attending work despite these changes. Most appropriate treatment?

A. Sertraline

B. Clozapine

C. Quetiapine

D. Diazepam

E. Fluoxetine

Answer: C. Quetiapine

Acute mania is controlled with a second-generation antipsychotic such as quetiapine, olanzapine or risperidone, often with a mood stabiliser. Quetiapine is favoured when drug interactions or tolerability limit other agents. If mania is refractory despite mood stabilisers plus an antipsychotic, electroconvulsive therapy is indicated. Prominent mood episodes on a background of schizophrenia point to schizoaffective disorder. Antidepressant monotherapy can precipitate mania and is avoided.

Recall tip First-line for acute mania is an atypical antipsychotic like quetiapine. Refractory mania on full therapy is an indication for electroconvulsive therapy.

Three down. Do the other 97 March questions free in the quiz.

Question 4 of 10 · Gastroenterology & Surgery · Bleeding Peptic Ulcer

A man has haematemesis and melaena; endoscopy shows an actively bleeding peptic ulcer and he is stable after resuscitation. He vomited a large amount of blood-stained material at home before being brought to hospital, and his haemoglobin dropped notably on arrival, prompting transfusion during resuscitation. His blood pressure and heart rate have since stabilised. Most appropriate initial management?

A. Immediate surgery

B. Endoscopic therapy

C. H. pylori triple Rx

D. Oral antibiotics

E. IV steroids only

Answer: B. Endoscopic therapy

A bleeding peptic ulcer is first controlled with endoscopic haemostasis such as adrenaline injection, then high-dose IV proton pump inhibitor, with H. pylori eradication afterwards. Rectal bleeding in patients over 50 to 60, or with iron-deficiency anaemia, requires colonoscopy to exclude colorectal cancer even when haemorrhoids seem likely. Stable lower GI bleeding is investigated by colonoscopy. Massive lower GI bleeding with instability, especially after a negative upper endoscopy, is investigated by CT angiography which can guide embolisation. Stability determines the pathway.

Recall tip Stop the bleeding ulcer endoscopically first, then PPI and treat H. pylori. Stable lower GI bleeds get a colonoscopy; unstable ones get CT angiography.

Question 5 of 10 · Emergency & Trauma · Haemorrhagic Shock Classification

A patient has a heart rate of 120 and a postural blood pressure fall from 110/70 lying to 85/50 sitting after acute blood loss. The bleeding followed a traumatic injury, and the team is assessing his observations to estimate the severity of blood loss and guide the resuscitation plan. He remains conscious and able to answer questions appropriately. What percentage blood loss does this best fit?

A. About 15%

B. About 30%

C. Under 15%

D. About 40%

E. Over 40%

Answer: B. About 30%

Haemorrhagic shock is graded by physiological changes. A heart rate over 120 with marked postural hypotension corresponds to Class III, representing roughly 30 to 40% blood loss. Confusion and profound hypotension suggest Class IV with over 40% loss. Early compensated loss under 15% shows minimal vital sign change. These classes guide the urgency of resuscitation and transfusion.

Recall tip Tachycardia over 120 with hypotension is about 30% loss (Class III). Confusion and severe hypotension push you past 40%.

Question 6 of 10 · Renal & Urology · Hyperkalaemia Management

A patient has a serum potassium of 6.4 mmol/L and no ECG changes are mentioned. The result was found on routine blood tests during an admission for an unrelated illness, and the patient feels well with no palpitations or muscle weakness. A repeat sample is being sent to confirm the result while treatment is considered. Most appropriate immediate treatment to lower potassium?

A. Calcium chloride

B. Bicarbonate IV

C. Salbutamol nebs

D. Insulin, glucose

E. Resonium resin

Answer: D. Insulin, glucose

Insulin with glucose is the most effective rapid treatment to lower serum potassium, driving it into cells via the Na/K ATPase pump, with glucose preventing hypoglycaemia. Additional intracellular shift is achieved with a beta-agonist such as salbutamol or with bicarbonate. Potassium is then removed from the body with a resin, diuretics or dialysis. When ECG changes are present, IV calcium is given first to stabilise the myocardium, though it does not lower potassium. Matching therapy to whether ECG changes exist is the key exam point.

Recall tip Hyperkalaemia with no ECG changes means insulin plus glucose. Hyperkalaemia with ECG changes means calcium first to protect the heart.

Six down, 94 to go. The rest of the March 2026 set is free in the quiz, one question per screen with the explanation after you answer. Practise all 100 March 2026 questions free

Question 7 of 10 · Neurology · Guillain-Barre Syndrome

A patient has progressive ascending weakness and areflexia after a viral illness; CSF shows high protein with a normal cell count. He had a mild gastrointestinal illness about two weeks ago that resolved on its own, before he began noticing tingling and weakness starting in his feet and gradually spreading upward over the following days. His breathing is currently being closely monitored. Best test to confirm the diagnosis?

A. Muscle biopsy now

B. Creatine kinase

C. Electromyography

D. CT brain scan

E. Nerve conduction

Answer: E. Nerve conduction

Guillain-Barre syndrome causes ascending weakness and areflexia, often after a viral illness. Nerve conduction studies are the most useful confirmatory test, showing reduced conduction velocity, conduction block and prolonged distal latencies from demyelination. The classic CSF finding is albuminocytologic dissociation, with high protein and a normal white cell count. Electromyography is less sensitive early, and muscle biopsy and CT brain are not used to diagnose it. Monitoring of respiratory function is essential.

Recall tip Ascending weakness with areflexia after a viral illness is Guillain-Barre. Confirm with nerve conduction studies; the CSF shows high protein with normal cells.

Question 8 of 10 · Infectious & Sexual Health, Ethics, Biostatistics & Genetics · Primary HPV Cervical Screening

A 30-year-old woman is due for cervical screening. She has never had any abnormal results on previous screening and has no current symptoms, attending simply because she received a routine reminder letter. She asks her doctor to explain what the test will actually involve this time. Under a primary HPV screening program, what is the correct approach if she has ever been sexually active?

A. Pap smear only

B. No screening now

C. HPV vaccine only

D. HPV test first

E. Colposcopy first

Answer: D. HPV test first

Primary HPV-based cervical screening tests for high-risk HPV first in anyone who has ever been sexually active, including women who have sex with women. If HPV is detected and is not type 16 or 18, reflex liquid-based cytology on the same sample triages further management. HPV types 16 or 18 prompt direct referral to colposcopy. Self-collected samples are valid for HPV testing, and a positive result is followed by clinician-collected cytology. Screening decisions follow the HPV result rather than starting with cytology.

Recall tip Screening starts with an HPV test; types 16 or 18 go straight to colposcopy, other high-risk types get reflex cytology. Women who have sex with women still need screening.

Question 9 of 10 · Infectious & Sexual Health, Ethics, Biostatistics & Genetics · Mandatory Reporting of Child Neglect

A child repeatedly attends with poor hygiene, untreated injuries and missed appointments, and you suspect neglect. Over the past several visits you have noticed a pattern of unexplained bruising and the child appearing consistently unwashed, and two scheduled follow-up appointments have been missed without explanation. You have not yet raised these observations with the family. Most appropriate action?

A. Take no action now

B. Notify child services

C. Arrange follow-up

D. Advise the parents

E. Refer to a lawyer

Answer: B. Notify child services

Doctors are mandatory reporters and must notify child protection services when they have a reasonable suspicion of child abuse or neglect, such as poor hygiene, untreated injuries and repeatedly missed care. Reporting is based on reasonable suspicion and does not require proof or certainty. The threshold is deliberately low to protect the child. Confronting the family or waiting to gather evidence can place the child at further risk. The clinician still provides care and documents concerns.

Recall tip Suspected child neglect or abuse is a mandatory report to child protection, and you need only reasonable suspicion, not proof. Protecting the child comes before gathering evidence.

Question 10 of 10 · Infectious & Sexual Health, Ethics, Biostatistics & Genetics · Incidence vs Prevalence

Public health officials are monitoring disease trends in a town to understand how quickly a condition is spreading through the population over time. In a town of 10,000 people, 500 have a disease at the start of the year and 250 new cases develop during the year. What does the 250 figure represent?

A. Point prevalence

B. Relative risk now

C. Overall mortality

D. Attributable risk

E. Annual incidence

Answer: E. Annual incidence

Incidence is the number of new cases occurring in a defined population over a time period, so 250 new cases in a year is the annual incidence. Prevalence is the total number of existing cases at a point in time (here 500), measured by cross-sectional studies. On an ROC curve, choosing a cut-off with no false positives means moving the threshold to the right of the healthy population's distribution, maximising specificity. A cardiovascular risk chart value above 30% falls in the red zone, indicating high absolute risk needing intensive risk-factor management. The upper limit of a normal reference interval is conventionally the mean plus two standard deviations.

Recall tip New cases over a period is incidence; existing cases at a point is prevalence. A no-false-positive cut-off sits to the right of the healthy curve, and the upper normal limit is the mean plus two standard deviations.

That's 10 of 100. The full March 2026 set is free in the quiz, which is a closer rehearsal of the Pearson VUE screen than any page you can read. Start the free March 2026 quiz

How to use these AMC CAT MCQ recalls

These ten are a sample; the other 90 March questions are free in the quiz. Work through them one at a time, read the explanation even when you're right, and keep a list of the topics you got wrong. That list is your syllabus for the next fortnight.

Recalls tell you what was tested. They don't teach you the medicine. Our rule is simple: use them to direct your attention, then go and learn the topic properly from Therapeutic Guidelines, the RACGP Red Book or the Immunisation Handbook. Candidates who memorise recall answers without the reasoning get caught the moment the AMC changes one detail in the stem, and it always changes one detail.

The combination our team recommends is one paid question bank as your foundation, with the free AMC Recalls monthly sets layered on top as a topic-spotting tool. We compared the main platforms in our AMC Part 1 question bank review; for most candidates on a three to four month timeline that comes out as AMC Academic (20% off any subscription with the code NC94RL at checkout), with the AMC Success Telegram group for discussing each sitting as reports come in. If you have five or six months and a bigger budget, the review explains when alternative platforms such as eMedici and Amedex can help. The full study method, week by week, is in how to pass AMC Part 1 on your first try.

One thing on the timeline that catches people out: passing the AMC CAT MCQ is not the last exam before you can work. AHPRA needs evidence of English before registration, which for most IMGs means IELTS Academic with 7 in every band, or OET with a B in every component. Sit it early, while you're already in exam mode, rather than after your MCQ result. It is also one of the practical reasons AMC Academic comes out ahead in our review: an IELTS Academic preparation course is included in the subscription, so the English test doesn't become a second bill on top of the AMC exam fees.

Other 2026 AMC Part 1 recall summaries

Every 2026 sitting has its own summary and its own free 100-question quiz. Topics repeat across months, so the older sets are worth doing too.

• October 2026 recall summary · quiz

• September 2026 recall summary · quiz

• August 2026 recall summary · quiz

• July 2026 recall summary · quiz

• May 2026 recall summary · quiz

• April 2026 recall summary · quiz

• March 2026 (this page) · quiz

• February 2026 recall summary · quiz

June 2026 recall summary · quiz

Ready to practise? Every 2026 sitting is free: 100 questions a month, explanations on every one. Start the March 2026 quiz · Browse all sittings

AMC Recalls is an independent study resource written by doctors who have sat AMC Part 1. We are not affiliated with, endorsed by or connected to the Australian Medical Council, and we have no access to its question bank. The AMC recalls on this page are written from the topics candidates reported after the March 2026 sitting; they are not real exam questions. Our disclaimer explains the process. For eligibility, fees, dates or exam rules, the AMC website is the authority.