AMC MCQ Recalls February 2026: 10 Free Questions and the Topics That Keep Coming Back

Want the whole February 2026 set? All 100 questions are free in the quiz, with the explanation and recall tip after every answer. Start the free February 2026 quiz

February was the first sitting of 2026. With seven more months of reports behind us, it is striking how much of it came back again and again: postmenopausal bleeding, postpartum psychosis, delusional disorder, incarcerated hernia in an infant, malrotation, tension pneumothorax, painless haematuria. Prepare for February and you were most of the way to September. Below are ten of our 100 AMC MCQ recall questions for the February 2026 AMC Part 1 CAT MCQ, with answers and recall tips.

Then we answer the question behind most searches for "AMC exam syllabus": there isn't one in the sense people mean, but there is a short list of things tested every single month, and it's at the end.

What the February 2026 AMC CAT MCQ sitting leaned on

Here is how our 100 February questions break down by specialty, which mirrors the topics candidates reported:

• 12 Obstetrics & Gynaecology

• 12 Psychiatry

• 11 Paediatrics

• 9 GI, Surgery & Hepatobiliary

• 9 Respiratory & Emergency

• 7 Ethics & Professionalism

• 5 Cardiology

• 5 ID, Sexual Health & Vaccination

• 4 Renal & Urology

• 4 Endocrine

• 4 Rheumatology

• 4 Neurology

• 4 Haematology & Oncology

• 3 ENT, Head & Neck

• 2 Ophthalmology

• 2 Dermatology

• 2 Biostatistics

• 1 Prevention & Public Health

Twelve each for women's health and psychiatry, eleven paediatrics, nine each for gastro-surgery and respiratory-emergency. Ethics had seven, which is high, and included dynamic consent in labour and a conscientious objection referral, both of which are Australian-specific and both of which came back later in the year.

Rheumatology asked about HLA-B*58:01 testing before allopurinol, which surprised people and then appeared again in June as an allopurinol dosing question. That's the pattern worth noticing: the AMC has a bank of teaching points and rotates the angle. The high-yield topics guide is our attempt to list those teaching points by blueprint section.

10 free AMC Part 1 recalls from February 2026

Work each recall before you read the answer. The recall tip under each is the exam-day version: the one phrase in the stem that decides the answer.

Question 1 of 10 · Paediatrics · Nephrotic Syndrome

A 4-year-old has puffy eyes and swollen legs for 3 days after a cold. He is well with a normal BP; dipstick shows 3+ protein and only trace blood. His parents noticed the swelling starting around his eyes in the morning and spreading to his legs by evening, and he has been eating and playing normally despite the puffiness. He has had no fever, rash or joint pains. Which test best confirms the underlying process?

A. Complement C3 level

B. Serum albumin level

C. Antinuclear antibody

D. Urgent renal biopsy

E. Antistreptolysin O

Answer: B. Serum albumin level

Nephrotic syndrome is heavy proteinuria with low albumin and oedema. In children 1-6 years it is usually minimal change disease and steroid-responsive. A low serum albumin confirms the syndrome once dipstick shows heavy protein. Normal BP and absent haematuria point away from nephritic causes. Biopsy is reserved for atypical or steroid-resistant cases.

Recall tip Heavy protein with no blood, normal BP and a well child means nephrotic syndrome. Confirm with serum albumin, not biopsy, and start empirical prednisolone.

Question 2 of 10 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Missed Combined Pill Rule

A woman on the combined pill missed one active tablet and remembers within 24 hours. She has taken the rest correctly with no vomiting or diarrhoea. She realised the tablet was missed when she went to take her next dose the following morning, and she has otherwise been taking the pill consistently at the same time each day. What should she do?

A. Use emergency contraception

B. Restart after 7 days

C. Stop, restart next cycle

D. Skip it, continue pack

E. Take now, continue pack

Answer: E. Take now, continue pack

If one active combined pill is missed and remembered within 24 hours, take it immediately and continue the pack as usual. No emergency or additional contraception is needed. This applies regardless of the week of the pack when only one pill is missed. Two or more missed pills require backup cover and possibly emergency contraception. Vomiting or diarrhoea is treated as a missed pill.

Recall tip One missed pill under 24 hours late: take it and carry on, no backup needed. It is two or more missed pills that change the advice.

Question 3 of 10 · Psychiatry · Antidepressant-Induced Mania

A man treated with an SSRI/SNRI for depression develops, after a dose increase, elevated mood, reduced need for sleep, grandiosity and risk-taking. He has no prior bipolar diagnosis. His dose was increased about a week ago for persistent depressive symptoms, and his family have since noticed him sleeping only a few hours a night while taking on ambitious new projects and spending large amounts of money impulsively. What is the most appropriate next step?

A. Increase current dose

B. Withdraw antidepressant

C. Reassure, continue

D. Add a benzodiazepine

E. Add a second agent

Answer: B. Withdraw antidepressant

Antidepressants, especially SNRIs, can precipitate mania or hypomania and unmask bipolar disorder. When manic features emerge the antidepressant is stopped immediately and the patient assessed for bipolar disorder. Increasing the dose or adding another antidepressant worsens mania. Persistent or severe symptoms are treated with a mood stabiliser or atypical antipsychotic. Admission is needed for risky behaviour, psychosis or poor insight.

Recall tip New mania after an antidepressant means stop the drug and reconsider bipolar disorder. Never push the dose or add a second antidepressant.

Three down. Do the other 97 February questions free in the quiz.

Question 4 of 10 · Ethics & Professionalism · Emergency Treatment Without Consent

A 5-year-old arrives septic and shocked, needing immediate life-saving treatment. The parents cannot be reached. The child was brought in by ambulance after collapsing at school, and staff have been unable to reach either parent despite multiple attempts on the contact numbers provided. His condition continues to deteriorate rapidly while the team awaits contact. What is the most appropriate action?

A. Get phone consent first

B. Wait for the parents

C. Give comfort care only

D. Seek a court order

E. Treat now without consent

Answer: E. Treat now without consent

Under the doctrine of necessity and the child's best interests, immediate life-saving treatment can proceed without consent when delay would risk serious harm. Waiting for parents or phone consent would dangerously delay care. Court involvement is not needed for emergencies. Consent is sought as soon as practicable once the patient is stabilised. This applies to children and adults alike.

Recall tip In a genuine emergency, treat first and obtain consent afterwards. Do not delay life-saving care for absent parents or a court.

Question 5 of 10 · GI, Surgery & Hepatobiliary · Perforated Diverticulitis

A 68-year-old has left lower quadrant pain, fever and vomiting with generalised guarding and rigidity. CT shows sigmoid diverticulitis with free intraperitoneal air and fluid. His pain began suddenly yesterday and has progressively worsened, now accompanied by an inability to tolerate any oral intake. On examination his abdomen is rigid and diffusely tender, and he appears acutely unwell. What is the most appropriate management?

A. Conservative watch

B. Emergency laparotomy

C. Oral antibiotics, home

D. IV antibiotics + drain

E. Colonoscopy to assess

Answer: B. Emergency laparotomy

Perforated diverticulitis with generalised peritonitis and free air is Hinchey III/IV, a surgical emergency. Source control with emergency laparotomy and sigmoid resection (often Hartmann's in the unstable patient) is mandatory. Antibiotics alone are insufficient once there is free perforation. Contained abscesses are drained, but free perforation with peritonitis is not. Resuscitate and give broad-spectrum antibiotics in parallel.

Recall tip Free air plus peritonitis means the operating theatre, not just antibiotics. Contained abscesses are drained; free perforation is operated on.

Question 6 of 10 · Respiratory & Emergency · CURB-65 and Mild CAP

A well 30-year-old has cough and low-grade fever with normal saturations and a CURB-65 of 0. Chest X-ray shows a small area of lower-zone consolidation. She has no allergies. Her symptoms began three days ago with a mild cough that has progressively worsened, though she continues to manage her usual daily activities without significant difficulty. She has no confusion, and her vital signs today are all within normal limits. What is the best initial treatment?

A. IV piperacillin-tazo

B. Ceftriaxone + azithro

C. Oral amoxicillin

D. Give no antibiotics

E. IV ceftriaxone alone

Answer: C. Oral amoxicillin

Community-acquired pneumonia severity is graded with CURB-65 to guide treatment setting. A well patient scoring 0 with normal saturations has mild CAP and is treated with oral amoxicillin, targeting Streptococcus pneumoniae. Severe CAP (confusion, respiratory rate 30 or more, hypotension, multilobar changes) needs IV ceftriaxone plus azithromycin without delay. A lateral view helps detect middle-lobe consolidation missed on the PA film. Cultures do not delay treatment in severe disease.

Recall tip CURB-65 0-1 means oral amoxicillin at home; escalate to IV ceftriaxone plus azithromycin for severe CAP. Add a lateral film if you suspect the middle lobe.

Six down, 94 to go. The rest of the February 2026 set is free in the quiz, one question per screen with the explanation after you answer. Practise all 100 February 2026 questions free

Question 7 of 10 · Cardiology · Hyperkalaemia ECG Changes

A patient with chronic kidney disease is weak; ECG shows tall peaked T waves and a widening QRS, with potassium pending. He has been feeling increasingly weak and fatigued over the past few days, and this ECG was performed as part of his assessment given his known kidney disease. The treating team recognises these changes as requiring immediate action rather than waiting for formal results. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

A. IV insulin + glucose

B. IV calcium gluconate

C. Polystyrene sulfonate

D. Nebulised salbutamol

E. Urgent dialysis only

Answer: B. IV calcium gluconate

ECG changes in hyperkalaemia (peaked T waves, widened QRS, sine wave) are life-threatening regardless of the exact number. IV calcium gluconate is given first to stabilise the cardiac membrane, though it does not lower potassium. Shifting agents (insulin with glucose, salbutamol) follow. Removal (dialysis, diuretics, binders) comes last. Calcium is always first when the ECG is abnormal.

Recall tip With hyperkalaemic ECG changes, calcium comes first to protect the heart, then insulin/glucose and salbutamol to shift, then removal. The ECG, not the number, drives urgency.

Question 8 of 10 · Rheumatology · HLA-B*58:01 and Allopurinol

A man with recurrent gout and tophi is to start allopurinol. He is of Han Chinese background with normal renal function. He has had several painful gout flares over the past year despite dietary changes, and his doctor has now recommended starting long-term urate-lowering therapy to prevent further attacks and reduce his visible tophi. Which test should be performed before starting?

A. Serum urate level

B. Liver function test

C. HLA-B*58:01 testing

D. C-reactive protein

E. Renal function test

Answer: C. HLA-B*58:01 testing

Allopurinol can cause severe cutaneous adverse reactions including Stevens-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis and DRESS. These are strongly associated with the HLA-B*58:01 allele, which is more common in Han Chinese, Korean, Thai and some Southeast Asian populations. Testing before starting is recommended in these groups, and a positive result means avoiding allopurinol. Urate and renal function guide dosing but are not the key safety screen. This prevents potentially fatal reactions.

Recall tip Before allopurinol in a high-risk ancestry, check HLA-B*58:01 to avoid SJS/TEN. A positive result means choose a different urate-lowering agent.

Question 9 of 10 · ID, Sexual Health & Vaccination · Meningococcal Disease

A man recently released from prison presents after a shared meal with sudden high fever, severe headache, a rash and rapid deterioration. His symptoms began abruptly just a few hours ago and have progressed alarmingly fast, with the rash appearing and spreading rapidly across his body since his arrival. He was released from a crowded correctional facility only a few days earlier. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Viral gastroenteritis

B. Meningococcal disease

C. Bacterial food poison

D. Enteric typhoid fever

E. Simple heat exhaustion

Answer: B. Meningococcal disease

Meningococcal disease presents with sudden high fever, severe headache, a petechial or purpuric rash and rapid deterioration, and is commoner in crowded settings such as prisons and barracks. The shared meal is a red herring because spread is via respiratory droplets, not food. Immediate parenteral antibiotics (ceftriaxone or benzylpenicillin) are given without delay for investigations. Public health is notified and close contacts receive chemoprophylaxis. Early recognition is life-saving.

Recall tip Fever, headache and a rash with rapid decline in an institution is meningococcal disease; give antibiotics immediately. The shared food is a distractor because spread is by droplets.

Question 10 of 10 · Biostatistics · PPV and NPV Interpretation

A new screening test is being evaluated for use in a primary care setting, and clinicians want to understand how confident they can be when interpreting either a positive or a negative result from it. A diagnostic test has a positive predictive value of 50% and a negative predictive value of 90%. Which statement is most correct?

A. Test is 50% specific

B. 90% positive have it

C. Test is 90% sensitive

D. Positive: 50% have it

E. 50% with it test +

Answer: D. Positive: 50% have it

Positive predictive value is the probability that a person with a positive test truly has the disease, so a PPV of 50% means half of positives are true positives. A negative predictive value of 90% means 90% of negative results are truly disease-free, making the test good at ruling out disease. PPV and NPV depend on disease prevalence, unlike sensitivity and specificity. This test rules out better than it rules in. Do not confuse predictive values with sensitivity or specificity.

Recall tip PPV tells you how trustworthy a positive is; NPV how trustworthy a negative is. High NPV, modest PPV means the test is better at ruling out than ruling in.

That's 10 of 100. The full February 2026 set is free in the quiz, which is a closer rehearsal of the Pearson VUE screen than any page you can read. Start the free February 2026 quiz

How to use these AMC MCQ recalls

Ten here, 90 more in the free quiz. February's set is older now, which makes it a good diagnostic: if you score well on it cold, your base is sound and you should move to timed practice. If you don't, the topics you miss are where to start.

Recalls tell you what was tested. They don't teach you the medicine. Our rule is simple: use them to direct your attention, then go and learn the topic properly from Therapeutic Guidelines, the RACGP Red Book or the Immunisation Handbook. Candidates who memorise recall answers without the reasoning get caught the moment the AMC changes one detail in the stem, and it always changes one detail.

The combination our team recommends is one paid question bank as your foundation, with the free AMC Recalls monthly sets layered on top as a topic-spotting tool. We compared the main platforms in our AMC Part 1 question bank review; for most candidates on a three to four month timeline that comes out as AMC Academic (20% off any subscription with the code NC94RL at checkout), with the AMC Success Telegram group for discussing each sitting as reports come in. If you have five or six months and a bigger budget, the review explains when alternative platforms such as eMedici and Amedex can help. The full study method, week by week, is in how to pass AMC Part 1 on your first try.

One thing on the timeline that catches people out: passing the AMC CAT MCQ is not the last exam before you can work. AHPRA needs evidence of English before registration, which for most IMGs means IELTS Academic with 7 in every band, or OET with a B in every component. Sit it early, while you're already in exam mode, rather than after your MCQ result. It is also one of the practical reasons AMC Academic comes out ahead in our review: an IELTS Academic preparation course is included in the subscription, so the English test doesn't become a second bill on top of the AMC exam fees.

Other 2026 AMC CAT MCQ recall summaries

Every 2026 sitting has its own summary and its own free 100-question quiz. Topics repeat across months, so the older sets are worth doing too.

• October 2026 recall summary · quiz

• September 2026 recall summary · quiz

• August 2026 recall summary · quiz

• July 2026 recall summary · quiz

• May 2026 recall summary · quiz

• April 2026 recall summary · quiz

• March 2026 recall summary · quiz

• February 2026 (this page) · quiz

June 2026 recall summary · quiz

Ready to practise? Every 2026 sitting is free: 100 questions a month, explanations on every one. Start the February 2026 quiz · Browse all sittings

AMC Recalls is an independent study resource written by doctors who have sat AMC Part 1. We are not affiliated with, endorsed by or connected to the Australian Medical Council, and we have no access to its question bank. The AMC recalls on this page are written from the topics candidates reported after the February 2026 sitting; they are not real exam questions. Our disclaimer explains the process. For eligibility, fees, dates or exam rules, the AMC website is the authority.