AMC MCQ Recalls September 2026: 10 Free Recall Questions with Answers

Want the whole September 2026 set? All 100 questions are free in the quiz, with the explanation and recall tip after every answer. Start the free September 2026 quiz

September was a women's health month. Three hypertensive-pregnancy stems from three angles (when to refer, when to treat, what to do when the fit happens after delivery), a run of ethics scenarios about consent and confidentiality, and more ophthalmology than most people expect from a general exam. Below are ten of our 100 AMC MCQ recall questions for the September 2026 AMC CAT MCQ sitting, each with the answer, the reasoning and a recall tip.

If you sat in September and are waiting on AMC MCQ results: they land on the Friday three weeks after your exam week, 4 pm Canberra time, in your AMC portal. Our guide to the AMC exam pass rate and passing score explains the 250/500 scaled score and the "by country of training" tables once the result is in.

What the September 2026 AMC Part 1 sitting leaned on

Here is how our 100 September questions break down by specialty, which mirrors the topics candidates reported:

• 12 Obstetrics & Gynaecology

• 10 Paediatrics

• 10 Psychiatry

• 10 Gastroenterology, Hepatobiliary & Surgery

• 6 Cardiology & Emergency

• 6 Endocrinology & Rheumatology

• 6 Infectious Diseases, Sexual Health & Vaccination

• 6 Ethics & Professionalism

• 5 Dermatology & Allergy

• 4 Musculoskeletal

• 4 Renal & Urology

• 4 Ophthalmology

• 4 Haematology & Oncology

• 4 Biostatistics & Epidemiology

• 3 Respiratory

• 3 Neurology

• 3 ENT & Head and Neck

Ten obstetrics and gynaecology items is on the high side, and three of them were hypertensive disease of pregnancy in different clothing: when to refer, when to treat, and what to do when the seizure happens after delivery. Psychiatry was mostly management decisions rather than diagnosis. The biostatistics questions were kinder than usual, but one of them hinged on a confidence interval crossing 1, which still trips up candidates who have memorised p-values and nothing else.

Set this against the AMC Part 1 high-yield topics and the blueprint weightings (30% adult medicine, 20% surgery, 12.5% each for women's health, child health, mental health, and population health and ethics) and September looks like a fairly standard distribution with a women's health tilt.

10 free AMC CAT MCQ recalls from September 2026

Work each recall before you read the answer. The recall tip under each is the exam-day version: the one phrase in the stem that decides the answer.

Question 1 of 10 · Paediatrics · Infantile Haemangioma (Propranolol)

A mother brings her 10-month-old because a bright-red, raised lesion on the chest that has been present since birth has doubled in size over the past 2 weeks. The infant is feeding and growing normally. His mother says it began as a small flat pink mark noticed in the first days of life. He has no other skin lesions and his examination is otherwise normal. What is the most appropriate management?

A. Pulsed-dye laser treatment course

B. Commence oral propranolol therapy

C. Topical timolol gel to the lesion

D. Surgical excision of the lesion

E. Reassurance and clinical review

Answer: B. Commence oral propranolol therapy

Infantile haemangiomas proliferate over the first months and then involute, so most small static lesions are simply observed. Rapid growth, ulceration, or a high-risk site such as the periocular region, lip, airway or breast/nipple area is an indication to treat. Oral propranolol is the first-line systemic agent, with heart rate, blood pressure and glucose monitoring in young infants. Topical timolol is reserved for small superficial lesions, while surgery and laser are for residual changes after involution. The exam signal is always the phrase describing rapid enlargement.

Recall tip If the stem says the lesion has doubled, grown rapidly, ulcerated or sits near the eye, lip or nipple, pick propranolol. If the lesion is unchanged and uncomplicated, the answer flips to reassurance and review. Excision or laser is never the first move in an infant.

Question 2 of 10 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Postpartum Eclampsia

A woman who delivered several days ago has a seizure at home; her BP is about 150/80. She received midazolam at home and again in the ambulance for a second seizure. She is drowsy but rousable between events and has not had a further seizure since the ambulance arrived. Her pregnancy and delivery were otherwise uncomplicated. On arrival in the emergency department, what is the most appropriate treatment?

A. Urgent CT of the brain first

B. Intravenous labetalol infusion

C. Intravenous magnesium sulfate

D. Intravenous phenytoin loading

E. Further intravenous midazolam

Answer: C. Intravenous magnesium sulfate

Seizures in the first days after delivery are eclampsia until proven otherwise, even with only moderately elevated blood pressure. Magnesium sulfate is given as a 4 g loading dose over 5 to 15 minutes followed by 1 g per hour for 24 hours after the last seizure. Benzodiazepines may terminate an ongoing seizure but do not prevent recurrence, and phenytoin is inferior to magnesium in eclampsia. Blood pressure is treated separately if it reaches 160/110. Imaging follows stabilisation if the picture is atypical.

Recall tip Peripartum seizure equals magnesium sulfate; midazolam is only a bridge for an ongoing fit. Know the antidote (calcium gluconate) and toxicity signs (lost reflexes, respiratory depression). Postpartum timing does not change the answer.

Question 3 of 10 · Psychiatry · Treatment-Resistant Schizophrenia (Clozapine)

A 32-year-old with schizophrenia has persistent hallucinations and functional impairment despite 6- week trials of risperidone and then quetiapine at therapeutic doses, with adherence confirmed. Each drug was continued for the full period before being changed, and adherence was verified by his case manager. His symptoms continue to interfere with work and relationships. What is the most appropriate next treatment?

A. Electroconvulsive therapy

B. Add a second antipsychotic

C. Increase both prior doses

D. Trial of olanzapine next

E. Switch to clozapine therapy

Answer: E. Switch to clozapine therapy

Treatment resistance is defined as moderate or severe symptoms persisting despite two different antipsychotics each given for at least 6 weeks at an adequate dose with documented adherence. Clozapine is the only agent with proven superiority in this group and requires registration with white cell monitoring for agranulocytosis and vigilance for myocarditis. Combining antipsychotics or escalating doses adds side effects without benefit. ECT is an adjunct, not the next step. Where the trials were too short, another standard antipsychotic should be tried first.

Recall tip Count the trials and their duration before choosing clozapine: two adequate trials of 6 weeks or more equals clozapine. If the stem says 3 weeks, or adherence is unconfirmed, the answer is optimise or switch to another antipsychotic. Clozapine is never for non-adherence.

Three down. Do the other 97 September questions free in the quiz.

Question 4 of 10 · Cardiology & Emergency · Basic Life Support Sequence

You are at an airport when an elderly man sitting nearby suddenly slumps to the floor. A companion says he was perfectly well moments earlier. There is a crowd gathering around him and an airport defibrillator cabinet is visible nearby. What should you do first?

A. Deliver two rescue breaths

B. Check for danger and response

C. Palpate the pulse for 10 seconds

D. Attach an AED and analyse

E. Begin chest compressions now

Answer: B. Check for danger and response

Basic life support begins with checking for danger and then responsiveness, followed by sending for help, opening the airway and assessing breathing. Compressions start only once the person is unresponsive and not breathing normally. Pulse checks are unreliable in lay and first-responder settings and are not part of the Australian Resuscitation Council sequence. An AED is applied as soon as it is available, but only after the collapse is established as a cardiac arrest. Rescue breaths follow 30 compressions, not precede them.

Recall tip Any 'what do you do first' collapse question is answered by D-R of DRSABCD unless the stem states the patient is already unresponsive and not breathing. Then compressions and defibrillation take over. Never choose a 10-second pulse check as the first action.

Question 5 of 10 · Gastroenterology, Hepatobiliary & Surgery · Variceal Haemorrhage (Endoscopy)

A man with alcohol-related liver disease presents with haematemesis. He has been resuscitated and is now haemodynamically stable. He vomited a large volume of fresh blood at home before the ambulance arrived. Terlipressin and antibiotics have already been given. What is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?

A. Video capsule endoscopy

B. Urgent upper GI endoscopy

C. Transjugular venography

D. Endoscopic ultrasound scan

E. CT angiography of abdomen

Answer: B. Urgent upper GI endoscopy

Upper GI bleeding in cirrhosis is variceal until proven otherwise, and endoscopy within 12 hours both diagnoses the source and allows band ligation or glue injection. Terlipressin or octreotide and IV ceftriaxone are started before the scope, with a restrictive transfusion target of 70 to 80 g/L. CT angiography is for ongoing obscure bleeding after negative endoscopy. Transjugular procedures are for TIPS in refractory bleeding, not diagnosis. Capsule endoscopy has no role in acute haematemesis.

Recall tip Any upper GI bleed once stable goes to gastroscopy. In the cirrhotic, remember the pre-scope package: vasoactive drug, antibiotics and restrictive transfusion. TIPS and balloon tamponade are rescue steps, not first steps.

Question 6 of 10 · Renal & Urology · Emergency Dialysis Indications

An elderly man with multiple comorbidities presents confused. Investigations show a metabolic acidosis, urea 19 mmol/L, significant hyperkalaemia and a normal glucose. He is passing very little urine and does not respond to a fluid challenge. His family say he has become progressively more confused over several days. What is the most appropriate management?

A. Insulin with dextrose infusion

B. Arrange urgent haemodialysis

C. Rectal sodium bicarbonate

D. Oral potassium binding resin

E. Bolus of IV normal saline

Answer: B. Arrange urgent haemodialysis

The AEIOU indications for emergency dialysis are acidosis, electrolytes (hyperkalaemia), ingestions, overload and uraemic symptoms such as confusion, pericarditis or bleeding. This patient has three of them. Insulin-dextrose, calcium and bicarbonate are temporising measures that shift or buffer potassium while dialysis is organised, and should be given if the ECG is abnormal, but they do not treat the failing kidney. Saline is appropriate only when the picture is pre-renal volume depletion.

Recall tip Confusion plus high urea plus hyperkalaemia plus acidosis means dialysis, not another bag of fluid. Insulin-dextrose is the answer only if the question asks for the immediate temporising step for a dangerous potassium with ECG change. Check for a dehydration clue before choosing saline.

Six down, 94 to go. The rest of the September 2026 set is free in the quiz, one question per screen with the explanation after you answer. Practise all 100 September 2026 questions free

Question 7 of 10 · Ophthalmology · Central Retinal Artery Occlusion

A patient presents with sudden painless loss of vision in the right eye. Fundoscopy shows a pale retina with a cherry-red spot at the macula. The loss occurred abruptly and was painless, and she presented within the hour. She has atrial fibrillation and hypertension. Of the following options, which is the intended immediate measure?

A. Intravenous acetazolamide

B. High-dose oral prednisolone

C. Topical timolol drops

D. Digital ocular massage

E. Topical pilocarpine drops

Answer: D. Digital ocular massage

A cherry-red spot on a pale oedematous retina is central retinal artery occlusion, an embolic event equivalent to a stroke of the eye. Historical measures within the first hours include intermittent ocular massage to dislodge the embolus and acetazolamide to lower intraocular pressure, and these remain the options exam recalls offer. Current guidance treats CRAO as a stroke emergency with immediate referral for vascular work-up and consideration of thrombolysis where eligible. Steroids are for arteritic optic neuropathy, not embolic occlusion.

Recall tip Cherry-red spot equals CRAO. If ocular massage is listed pick it; if the stem asks for a drug pick acetazolamide; if urgent stroke assessment is listed that is the modern answer. Transient monocular loss instead means amaurosis fugax and carotid Doppler.

Question 8 of 10 · Infectious Diseases, Sexual Health & Vaccination · Needlestick in a Vaccinated Worker

A nurse sustains a needlestick injury. She completed hepatitis B vaccination 10 years ago with documented protective anti-HBs afterwards. The source patient is HBsAg positive with detectable HBV DNA, HCV antibody positive and HIV negative. The injury was from a hollow-bore needle and she washed the site immediately. Her anti-HBs result from the time of vaccination is documented in her occupational health record. Besides baseline serology, what should be done?

A. Hepatitis B booster plus HBIG

B. Oral tenofovir for 28 days

C. Follow-up HCV RNA and serology

D. HIV post-exposure prophylaxis

E. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin now

Answer: C. Follow-up HCV RNA and serology

A documented anti-HBs level of 10 IU/L or more after vaccination confers long-term protection, so neither immunoglobulin nor a booster is required. Tenofovir is treatment for chronic hepatitis B, not needlestick prophylaxis. HIV post-exposure prophylaxis is indicated only when the source is HIV positive or unknown with high risk. There is no effective post-exposure prophylaxis for hepatitis C, so the exposed worker has baseline testing then HCV RNA at 4 to 6 weeks and antibody at 3 months, with early treatment if infection occurs.

Recall tip Sort the three viruses separately: hepatitis B by the nurse's anti-HBs, HIV by the source's status, hepatitis C always by follow-up testing. Known responder means no HBIG. HIV-negative source means no PEP.

Question 9 of 10 · Ethics & Professionalism · Confidentiality to a Spouse

A woman attended the practice yesterday and had a positive pregnancy test. Today her husband telephones the practice asking for the result. He says he is her husband and gives her date of birth correctly. There is no record of her consenting to share information with him. What is the most appropriate response?

A. Tell him after confirming identity

B. Tell him the result is positive

C. Tell him the practice will call her

D. Ask him to book an appointment

E. Decline to disclose any information

Answer: E. Decline to disclose any information

Health information belongs to the patient, and marriage confers no right of access. Even confirming that a test was done breaches confidentiality, so the appropriate response is to explain that information about any patient cannot be provided and to suggest the patient contact the practice herself. Booking the husband an appointment implies there is something to discuss and is itself a disclosure. Identity confirmation does not create consent. The exception would be the patient's documented authority to share.

Recall tip Any request for results from a third party, including a spouse, is refused politely. Options that offer indirect disclosure, such as booking him in or promising a call, are traps. Only the patient's own consent unlocks information.

Question 10 of 10 · Biostatistics & Epidemiology · Confidence Interval Spanning 1

A GP audits post-exposure prophylaxis for hepatitis B and reports a relative risk of 1.5 (95 percent confidence interval 0.7 to 2.7) for vaccine compared with immunoglobulin. The audit covered a small number of exposures over a single year, and the result is being presented at a practice meeting. What does this result indicate?

A. Vaccine is significantly more effective

B. The two treatments are equivalent

C. No statistically significant difference

D. The result cannot be interpreted

E. Immunoglobulin is more effective

Answer: C. No statistically significant difference

For relative risks and odds ratios the null value is 1, and a confidence interval that spans 1 means the data are compatible with no difference. Non-significance is not proof of equivalence, because the interval also allows a large benefit or harm; the study is simply too imprecise to decide. A point estimate above 1 does not favour one arm unless the whole interval lies above 1. On a forest plot the same rule applies to any line or diamond crossing the vertical line.

Recall tip Ratio measure with 1 inside the interval equals not significant, full stop. Do not upgrade that to equivalence or downgrade it to uninterpretable. For differences in means the null value is 0, not 1.

That's 10 of 100. The full September 2026 set is free in the quiz, which is a closer rehearsal of the Pearson VUE screen than any page you can read. Start the free September 2026 quiz

How to use these AMC MCQ recalls

Ten questions is enough to tell you whether your preparation is at the standard; it is not enough to prepare you. The remaining 90 September questions are in the free quiz, one per screen with instant feedback, which is a closer rehearsal of the Pearson VUE interface than reading a page like this.

Recalls tell you what was tested. They don't teach you the medicine. Our rule is simple: use them to direct your attention, then go and learn the topic properly from Therapeutic Guidelines, the RACGP Red Book or the Immunisation Handbook. Candidates who memorise recall answers without the reasoning get caught the moment the AMC changes one detail in the stem, and it always changes one detail.

The combination our team recommends is one paid question bank as your foundation, with the free AMC Recalls monthly sets layered on top as a topic-spotting tool. We compared the main platforms in our AMC Part 1 question bank review; for most candidates on a three to four month timeline that comes out as AMC Academic (20% off any subscription with the code NC94RL at checkout), with the AMC Success Telegram group for discussing each sitting as reports come in. If you have five or six months and a bigger budget, the review explains when alternative platforms such as eMedici and Amedex can help. The full study method, week by week, is in how to pass AMC Part 1 on your first try.

One thing on the timeline that catches people out: passing the AMC CAT MCQ is not the last exam before you can work. AHPRA needs evidence of English before registration, which for most IMGs means IELTS Academic with 7 in every band, or OET with a B in every component. Sit it early, while you're already in exam mode, rather than after your MCQ result. It is also one of the practical reasons AMC Academic comes out ahead in our review: an IELTS Academic preparation course is included in the subscription, so the English test doesn't become a second bill on top of the AMC exam fees.

Ready to practise? Every 2026 sitting is free: 100 questions a month, explanations on every one. Start the September 2026 quiz · Browse all sittings

AMC Recalls is an independent study resource written by doctors who have sat AMC Part 1. We are not affiliated with, endorsed by or connected to the Australian Medical Council, and we have no access to its question bank. The AMC recalls on this page are written from the topics candidates reported after the September 2026 sitting; they are not real exam questions. Our disclaimer explains the process. For eligibility, fees, dates or exam rules, the AMC website is the authority.