AMC MCQ Recalls August 2026: 10 Free Questions, Answers and the Qbank Question

Want the whole August 2026 set? All 100 questions are free in the quiz, with the explanation and recall tip after every answer. Start the free August 2026 quiz

Ask ten candidates what August was about and eight will say "surgery". Gallstone pancreatitis, acute cholangitis, a dilated duct with no visible stone, diverticular abscess, a Hartmann procedure: the hepatobiliary and colorectal pathway was tested from several angles, and knowing the diagnosis without the next step cost marks. Below are ten of our 100 AMC MCQ recall questions for the August 2026 AMC Part 1 sitting, with answers and recall tips.

August also brought more emails than usual asking one thing: which AMC question bank should I buy? We answer it at the end, and in more depth in our question bank review.

What the August 2026 AMC CAT MCQ sitting leaned on

Here is how our 100 August questions break down by specialty, which mirrors the topics candidates reported:

• 14 Paediatrics

• 13 Obstetrics & Gynaecology

• 10 Psychiatry

• 9 Cardiology & Vascular

• 9 GI, Hepatobiliary & Surgery

• 8 Respiratory, Emergency & Trauma

• 6 Ethics & Professionalism

• 5 Renal & Urology

• 4 ID, Sexual Health & Vaccination

• 4 Endocrine & Metabolic

• 3 Dermatology

• 3 MSK & Rheumatology

• 3 ENT, Head & Neck

• 3 Haematology & Oncology

• 2 Ophthalmology

• 2 Neurology

• 2 Biostatistics & EBM

Fourteen paediatric items is at the top of what we see, and most of them were respiratory: mild croup, croup with stridor at rest, bronchiolitis, pertussis, an inhaled foreign body. Cardiology was heavier than July and included a posterior infarct, which candidates reliably miss because the ST changes are in the "wrong" leads. Two PTSD questions in one sitting is unusual and worth noting if you're sitting in the next few months; topics do cluster for a while before they drop out.

The ethics block was six questions, and three of them were about colleagues: a doctor diverting controlled drugs, a doctor treating family, and a duty to warn a named third party. That block is where we tell people to look for the best marks per hour, because the rules are finite and the AMC asks them the same way every time.

10 free AMC MCQ recalls from August 2026

Work each recall before you read the answer. The recall tip under each is the exam-day version: the one phrase in the stem that decides the answer.

Question 1 of 10 · Paediatrics · Croup (Stridor at Rest)

A 2-year-old with a barking cough is now agitated, has audible stridor while lying quietly, and shows tracheal tug and intercostal recession. He has deteriorated over the past few hours and now looks frightened and will not settle. His parents report the barking cough began two nights ago after a mild cold. What should be given immediately?

A. Nebulised salbutamol via mask

B. Oral dexamethasone only now

C. Chest radiograph before therapy

D. Nebulised adrenaline solution

E. Intravenous benzylpenicillin

Answer: D. Nebulised adrenaline solution

Adrenaline causes rapid mucosal vasoconstriction and shrinks the swollen subglottis within minutes. It buys time but wears off in about two hours, so corticosteroid must be given alongside it and the child observed for rebound. Stridor only on crying is mild croup and needs steroid alone; stridor while the child is quiet is the line that triggers adrenaline. Loss of stridor in a tiring child is ominous rather than reassuring and signals impending obstruction. Keep the child calm and do not examine the throat.

Recall tip Read whether the stridor is present at rest. At rest means adrenaline plus steroid; only on crying means steroid alone.

Question 2 of 10 · Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Placental Abruption

A woman at 36 weeks arrives with sudden severe abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The uterus is firm, tense and tender, her pulse is 110 and blood pressure 100 on 60. The pain began abruptly about an hour ago and has been constant since, unlike the intermittent tightenings she had felt earlier in the week. She has had no fall or other trauma. The fetal heart rate is 90. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Placenta praevia with bleeding

B. Vasa praevia with vessel tear

C. Bleeding from cervical polyp

D. Placental abruption at term

E. Rupture of the gravid uterus

Answer: D. Placental abruption at term

Abruption is premature separation of a normally sited placenta, and the retroplacental clot produces the characteristic woody, tender uterus. Bleeding may be concealed, so visible loss badly underestimates the true volume and maternal observations matter more than the pad. Placenta praevia causes painless bleeding with a soft non-tender uterus and an abnormal lie. Uterine rupture is suggested by a previous scar, loss of contractions and recession of the presenting part. Do not perform a digital vaginal examination until praevia has been excluded on ultrasound.

Recall tip Pain plus a hard tender uterus means abruption; painless bleeding with a soft uterus means praevia. Judge severity from maternal observations, not from how much blood you can see.

Question 3 of 10 · Psychiatry · PTSD (Trauma-Focused Therapy)

The woman above is diagnosed with post traumatic stress disorder. She speaks little English and attends with her husband, who offers to interpret. He answers several questions on her behalf before she has had a chance to respond. She has not yet been seen on her own during any of her antenatal visits. What is the most appropriate management?

A. Diazepam with review in one month

B. Reassure and review after delivery

C. Admit her for inpatient assessment

D. Trauma focused therapy with interpreter

E. Start an antipsychotic at low dose

Answer: D. Trauma focused therapy with interpreter

Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy or eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing are the first-line treatments, with medication reserved for those who decline or fail psychotherapy. A professional interpreter is mandatory because a family member cannot preserve confidentiality and may themselves be part of the trauma or of a controlling dynamic. She should also be seen alone at least once to screen for family violence. Benzodiazepines are contraindicated because they worsen outcomes and impair engagement with therapy. Sertraline or paroxetine is the second-line pharmacological option, alongside referral to a state refugee health service.

Recall tip Never let a family member interpret, however willing they seem. Benzodiazepines in this disorder are always the wrong answer.

Three down. Do the other 97 August questions free in the quiz.

Question 4 of 10 · Cardiology & Vascular · Aortic Dissection

A 62-year-old with longstanding hypertension has sudden tearing chest pain radiating between his shoulder blades. Blood pressure is 190 on 100 in the right arm and 150 on 90 in the left. His tracing and chest film are unremarkable and troponin is negative. The pain reached maximum intensity within seconds of onset and has not eased since. His blood pressure has been poorly controlled for years and he admits to missing doses. What is the next investigation?

A. Ventilation perfusion lung scan

B. Serial troponin over six hours

C. Computed tomography angiography

D. Transoesophageal echocardiography

E. Repeat the twelve lead tracing

Answer: C. Computed tomography angiography

An interarm blood pressure difference with tearing interscapular pain is the classic presentation and demands imaging of the whole aorta. Computed tomography angiography is fast, widely available and defines the extent of the intimal flap and branch involvement, which determines surgical planning. A normal chest film does not exclude dissection, as a widened mediastinum is absent in a substantial minority. Transoesophageal echocardiography is useful when the patient is too unstable to move to the scanner or when contrast is contraindicated. Ascending involvement requires immediate surgery, while descending disease is usually managed medically with rate and pressure control.

Recall tip A normal chest film never excludes dissection. If the patient is stable, the scanner is the answer; if crashing, use bedside echocardiography.

Question 5 of 10 · GI, Hepatobiliary & Surgery · Gallstone Pancreatitis (Index Cholecystectomy)

A 45-year-old woman was admitted with mild gallstone pancreatitis. Ultrasound shows multiple gallbladder stones with the largest 10 millimetres and no stone in the common bile duct, which is not dilated. Her pain and enzymes have settled over 48 hours. She is eating normally again and her liver function tests have returned to baseline. She is otherwise fit and well with no significant comorbidity. What is the most appropriate management?

A. Magnetic resonance cholangiography

B. Cholecystectomy this admission

C. Elective surgery in three months

D. Endoscopic biliary sphincterotomy

E. Dietary advice and no operation

Answer: B. Cholecystectomy this admission

Recurrent gallstone pancreatitis occurs in a substantial proportion of patients within weeks if the gallbladder is left in place, and each episode can be more severe than the last. Same-admission laparoscopic cholecystectomy is therefore the Australian standard once the acute episode has settled and the patient is fit. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography is reserved for cholangitis or persistent duct obstruction, neither of which is present here. Magnetic resonance cholangiography would be considered only if the duct were dilated or liver tests remained abnormal. Discharging with a plan for surgery months later exposes the patient to avoidable recurrence.

Recall tip Settled mild gallstone pancreatitis means take the gallbladder out before the patient goes home. Reserve the endoscope for obstruction or cholangitis.

Question 6 of 10 · Respiratory, Emergency & Trauma · Paracetamol Overdose (Timed Level)

A 24-year-old woman is brought in six hours after taking 30 tablets of immediate release paracetamol, each 500 milligrams, with vodka. She weighs 60 kilograms, is alert and has normal observations. She disclosed the ingestion herself on arrival and has been able to give a clear and consistent account of the timing. She has no abdominal pain and has not vomited. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

A. Give activated charcoal by mouth

B. Start acetylcysteine without testing

C. Measure the serum paracetamol level

D. Check liver function tests only

E. Observe and repeat tests at 24 hours

Answer: C. Measure the serum paracetamol level

Fifteen grams is well above the toxic threshold of 200 milligrams per kilogram or 10 grams, so this is a significant ingestion requiring assessment. Between four and eight hours after an immediate release ingestion there is still time to obtain a level and act on it, and the nomogram determines whether acetylcysteine is needed. Activated charcoal is only useful within two hours, or up to four hours for very large ingestions, so at six hours it has passed. Beyond eight hours, or with a staggered or modified release ingestion, acetylcysteine is started empirically and the level checked afterwards. Do not delay treatment if the result will not be back before the eight hour mark.

Recall tip The clock and the formulation drive this answer. Under eight hours with immediate release means check the level first; over eight hours means treat first.

Six down, 94 to go. The rest of the August 2026 set is free in the quiz, one question per screen with the explanation after you answer. Practise all 100 August 2026 questions free

Question 7 of 10 · Ethics & Professionalism · Duty to Warn a Named Third Party

A 23-year-old man attends distressed after losing his job. During the consultation he says clearly that he intends to kill his former girlfriend and names her. He describes how he would do it. He is calm and coherent while doing so and does not appear intoxicated. He states that he knows where she lives. He has a history of violence. What is the most appropriate action?

A. Warn her and involve the police

B. Arrange review in one week

C. Ask him to promise not to act

D. Start an antidepressant today

E. Maintain his confidentiality

Answer: A. Warn her and involve the police

Confidentiality is not absolute and yields when there is a serious and imminent threat to the life or health of an identifiable person. The Australian Privacy Principles permit disclosure in these circumstances, and there is a recognised duty of care to third parties at risk. Both the police and the intended victim should be informed so that she can take protective steps. He also needs urgent psychiatric assessment, and involuntary detention under the mental health legislation may be appropriate if a mental illness is driving the risk. Document the reasoning, the threat in his own words, and who was told.

Recall tip Specific, imminent and named is the combination that permits disclosure. Vague anger with no identified target does not meet the threshold.

Question 8 of 10 · Renal & Urology · Painless Visible Haematuria (CT Urography)

A 65-year-old man who has smoked for 40 years reports one episode of painless visible haematuria. Urine culture is negative and there is no history of trauma or recent exercise. He noticed the blood on a single occasion and it has not recurred, which made him hesitate before seeking advice. He has no pain and is systemically well. What is the most appropriate initial imaging?

A. Plain abdominal radiography

B. Repeat urinalysis in one month

C. Computed tomography urography

D. Ultrasound of the urinary tract

E. Magnetic resonance of pelvis

Answer: C. Computed tomography urography

Visible haematuria in an adult is a red flag for urothelial malignancy until proven otherwise, and smoking is the dominant risk factor. Computed tomography urography images the kidneys, collecting systems and ureters, which cystoscopy cannot see. Cystoscopy remains essential and is performed alongside, since flat lesions in the bladder are invisible on imaging. The combination of upper tract imaging plus cystoscopy is the standard assessment and neither alone is adequate. Urine cytology may be added but has limited sensitivity for low grade tumours.

Recall tip One episode of visible blood is enough to trigger the full workup. Remember it takes both a scan and a scope, because each misses what the other finds.

Question 9 of 10 · ID, Sexual Health & Vaccination · Latent TB After BCG (IGRA)

A 29-year-old overseas trained doctor who received bacille Calmette-Guerin vaccination in childhood undergoes pre-employment screening. His tuberculin skin test shows 13 millimetres of induration. He is asymptomatic with a normal examination. He has never been treated for tuberculosis and grew up in a country where the vaccine is given routinely. What is the most appropriate next investigation?

A. Start isoniazid without testing

B. Sputum culture for acid fast bacilli

C. Repeat the tuberculin skin test

D. Computed tomography of the chest

E. Interferon gamma release assay

Answer: E. Interferon gamma release assay

The tuberculin skin test uses purified protein derivative that shares antigens with the vaccine strain, producing induration in people who were vaccinated rather than infected. Interferon gamma release assays use antigens absent from bacille Calmette-Guerin, so vaccination does not cause a false positive result. If the assay is positive, a chest radiograph is then performed to exclude active disease before labelling the infection as latent. Latent infection with a normal film is treated with isoniazid and pyridoxine, or a shorter rifampicin course, to prevent reactivation. Pyridoxine must accompany isoniazid to prevent peripheral neuropathy.

Recall tip Any history of the vaccine makes the skin test unreliable, so move to the blood assay. Confirm with a film before you call it latent disease.

Question 10 of 10 · Biostatistics & EBM · P-Value Interpretation

A randomised controlled trial compares drug A with drug B for healing gastric ulcers. The trial randomised several hundred patients and endoscopic healing at eight weeks was the prespecified primary outcome. Drug A heals more ulcers than drug B and the reported p value is less than 0.01. Which statement best describes what this means?

A. Drug B has been proven ineffective

B. One hundred more patients are needed

C. A one per cent chance that A is better

D. Drug A is clinically better for everyone

E. A gap this large is unlikely by chance

Answer: E. A gap this large is unlikely by chance

The p value is calculated assuming the null hypothesis of no difference is true, and it quantifies how compatible the observed data are with that assumption. A value below 0.01 means such a result would arise by chance alone less than one per cent of the time, so the null hypothesis is rejected. It is not the probability that the null hypothesis is true, nor the probability that drug A is superior, and those reversals are the commonest errors. Statistical significance also says nothing about the size of the benefit, so a significant result may still be clinically trivial. Look at the confidence interval and the absolute difference to judge whether the effect matters to patients.

Recall tip Read the options for the reversed definition, which is the usual trap. Significant means unlikely by chance, not important to the patient.

That's 10 of 100. The full August 2026 set is free in the quiz, which is a closer rehearsal of the Pearson VUE screen than any page you can read. Start the free August 2026 quiz

How to use these AMC Part 1 recalls

A page of ten questions gets you calibrated; the quiz gets you practised. The remaining 90 August questions are free in the quiz below, one per screen, with the explanation and tip shown after you commit to an answer.

Recalls tell you what was tested. They don't teach you the medicine. Our rule is simple: use them to direct your attention, then go and learn the topic properly from Therapeutic Guidelines, the RACGP Red Book or the Immunisation Handbook. Candidates who memorise recall answers without the reasoning get caught the moment the AMC changes one detail in the stem, and it always changes one detail.

The combination our team recommends is one paid question bank as your foundation, with the free AMC Recalls monthly sets layered on top as a topic-spotting tool. We compared the main platforms in our AMC Part 1 question bank review; for most candidates on a three to four month timeline that comes out as AMC Academic (20% off any subscription with the code NC94RL at checkout), with the AMC Success Telegram group for discussing each sitting as reports come in. If you have five or six months and a bigger budget, the review explains when alternative platforms such as eMedici and Amedex can help. The full study method, week by week, is in how to pass AMC Part 1 on your first try.

One thing on the timeline that catches people out: passing the AMC CAT MCQ is not the last exam before you can work. AHPRA needs evidence of English before registration, which for most IMGs means IELTS Academic with 7 in every band, or OET with a B in every component. Sit it early, while you're already in exam mode, rather than after your MCQ result. It is also one of the practical reasons AMC Academic comes out ahead in our review: an IELTS Academic preparation course is included in the subscription, so the English test doesn't become a second bill on top of the AMC exam fees.

Other 2026 AMC CAT MCQ recall summaries

Every 2026 sitting has its own summary and its own free 100-question quiz. Topics repeat across months, so the older sets are worth doing too.

• October 2026 recall summary · quiz

• September 2026 recall summary · quiz

• August 2026 (this page) · quiz

• July 2026 recall summary · quiz

• May 2026 recall summary · quiz

• April 2026 recall summary · quiz

• March 2026 recall summary · quiz

• February 2026 recall summary · quiz

June 2026 recall summary · quiz

Ready to practise? Every 2026 sitting is free: 100 questions a month, explanations on every one. Start the August 2026 quiz · Browse all sittings

AMC Recalls is an independent study resource written by doctors who have sat AMC Part 1. We are not affiliated with, endorsed by or connected to the Australian Medical Council, and we have no access to its question bank. The AMC recalls on this page are written from the topics candidates reported after the August 2026 sitting; they are not real exam questions. Our disclaimer explains the process. For eligibility, fees, dates or exam rules, the AMC website is the authority.